ACSM MCQ: September 2018

Archive for September 2018

Hormonal imbalances connected with long-term, intense training in female athletes, which results in amenorrhea, has been associated with what abnormal effects?

a. lower circulating hormone levels and decreased bone density resulting in osteoporosis

b. increased chances of obesity later in life

c. infertility

d. increased level of gonadotropin-releasing hormone

Answer: a. lower circulating hormone levels and decreased bone density resulting in osteoporosis

Hormonal imbalances connected with long-term, intense training in female athletes, which results in amenorrhea, has been associated with lower circulating hormone levels and decreased bone density resulting in osteoporosis.

What age related change is associated with increased risk for cardiovascular disease, insulin resistance, glucose intolerance, and abnormal lipoprotein profiles?

a. sarcopenia

b. decreased circulating growth hormone

c. increased central-to-peripheral adiposity measurements

d. decreased performance ability

Answer: c. increased central-to-peripheral adiposity measurements

Increased central-to-peripheral adiposity measurements, indicating fat mass increasing around the abdomen, is an age related change associated with increased risk for cardiovascular disease, insulin resistance, glucose intolerance, and abnormal lipoprotein profiles.

What neurologic disorder can cause a walking gait to show increased hip flexion, forward lean of the trunk, and shuffling steps?

a. hemiplegia

b. parkinsonism

c. multiple sclerosis

d. alzheimer's

Answer: b. parkinsonism

Parkinsonism is a neurologic disorder that can cause a walking gait to show increased hip flexion, forward lean of the trunk, and shuffling steps.

What inefficiency can cause reduced push-off and reduced step length on the affected side?

a. weak gluteus maximus

b. weak gluteus medius

c. weak quadriceps

d. weak plantar flexors

Answer: d. weak plantar flexors

Weak plantar flexors can cause reduced push-off and reduced step length on the affected side.

When there is weakness in the gluteus maximus, what affect can be seen in the walking gait?

a. anterior lean of the upper body at heel strike

b. lateral shift of the pelvis

c. reduced step length

d. hyperextension of the knee joint

Answer: a. anterior lean of the upper body at heel strike

Weakness in the gluteus maximus can show up in the walking gait as an anterior lean of the upper body at heel strike.

Which of the following statements about the heart and exercise is true?

a. aerobic training can have a significant positive impact on maximal heart rate

b. resting heart rate is significantly lowered after intense training

c. cardiac output is much greater when performing exercises in a prone position

d. during exercise, blood flow is greatly increased to all organ systems by means of vasodilation

Answer: b. resting heart rate is significantly lowered after intense training

The only true completely true statement regarding the heart and exercise is that the resting heart rate is significantly lower after intense training. maximal heart rate is unaffected by aerobic training, cardiac output is unaffected by posture, and blood flow decreases to other organ systems in order to supply adequate flow to the skeletal muscles during exercise.

Which of the following is used to assess coronary artery calcium?

a. electron beam computed tomography

b. radionuclide ventriculography

c. single photon emission computed tomography

d. radionuclide scintigraphy

Answer: a. electron beam computed tomography

Electron beam computed tomography is used to assess coronary artery calcium. Additionally, spiral tomography can be used.

What does predischarge exercise testing following myocardial infarction accomplish?

a. tests the degree of improvement since discharge

b. helps to design an exercise program

c. evaluates the client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL)

d. identifies signs and symptoms

Answer: c. evaluates the client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL)

Predischarge exercise testing following myocardial evaluates the client's ability to perform activities of daily lifting. It also allows for evaluating the effectiveness of pharmacological treatments and to reassure the client of their capacity for physical activities.

What function best describes the use of a goniometer?

a. measures body composition

b. tests flexibility

c. assesses breathing capacity

d. test endurance using time and distance factors

Answer: b. tests flexibility

A goniometer tests flexibility and range of motion. The device consists of two arms joined by a disc that allows measurements up to 360 degrees.

Which type of muscular endurance assessment uses body-weight exercises such as push-ups, sit-ups, and pull-ups?

a. isometric

b. functional

c. calisthenic

d. range of motion

Answer: c. calisthenic

Calisthenic tests use body-weight exercises such as push-ups, sit-ups, and pull-ups to assess muscular endurance. these tests may not accurately measure a very deconditioned person's endurance because their strength may not allow for completion of the test process.

What muscular endurance assessment measures the time a client is able to hold a submaximal force?

a. static endurance

b. dynamic endurance

c. isokinetic endurance

d. calisthenic endurance

Answer: a. static endurance

Static endurance measures the amount of time a client can hold a submaximal force. this measures this ability to exert submaximal force repeatedly.

Tightness and inflexibility of the hamstrings can lead to what type of chronic pain complaint?

a. aching knees after physical activity

b. sore glutes after physical activity

c. poor range of motion and resulting pain in quadriceps

d. low back pain

Answer: d. low back pain

Low back pain is a a frequent chronic pain complaint from clients with tight and inflexible hamstrings. introducing stretching at the end of workouts can help to relieve this problem and improve posture.

What electrolyte abnormality causes an ST depression with prominent U waves and flattened T waves?

a. hyperkalemia

b. hypokalemia

c. hypocalcemia

d. hypercalcemia

Answer: b. hypokalemia

Hypokalemia causes an ST depression with prominent U waves and flattened T waves.

What medication is used to treat heart and arrhythmias?

a. digitalis

b. quinidine

c. procainamide

d. disopyramide

Answer: a. digitalis

Digitalis is used to treat heart failure and arrhythmias; however, toxicity caused by this medication can also cause arrhythmias and conduction disturbances. the other medications can be used to treat arrhythmias as well.

What is considered the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in patients during acute myocardial infarction?

a. junctional arrhythmia

b. supraventricular tachycardia

c. monomorphic ventricular tachycardia

d. ventricular fibrillation

Answer: d. ventricular fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation is considered the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in patients during acute myocardial infarction. the treatment required for this condition is defibrillation. it can occur spontaneously in patients with heart disease.

What type of premature ventricular complex (PVC) consists of a repetitive pattern of one normal beat and one PVC?

a. ventricular couplet

b. ventricular tachycardia

c. ventricular bigeminy

d. ventricular trigeminy

Answer: c. ventricular bigeminy

Ventricular bigeminy is a type of premature ventricular complex (PVC) consisting of a repetitive pattern of one normal beat and one PVC. these irregularities are caused by the ventricles not being depolarized simultaneously.

What is represented by an ECG with a regular HR, ectopic P waves, a PR interval that may be normal, and a QRS complex that is normal?

a. atrial fibrillation

b. supraventricular tachycardia

c. sinus tachycardia

d. junctional arrhythmia

Answer: b. supraventricular tachycardia

Supraventricular tachycardia is represented by an ECG with a regular HR, ectopic P waves, a PR interval that may be normal, and a QRS complex that is normal.

What type of heart rhythm causes the atria to be stimulated by an ectopic focus rather than by the SA node?

a. sinus bradycardia

b. supraventricular tachycardia

c. junctional arrhythmia

d. atrial arrhythmias

Answer: d. atrial arrhythmias

Atrial arrhythmias cause the atria to be stimulated by an ectopic focus rather than by the SA node. these can occur in healthy people, as well as those with cardiovascular disease.

What heart rhythm, also called respiratory arrhythmia, occurs when the SA node fails to maintain a regular sinus rate from beat to beat?

a. sinus bradycardia

b. sinus tachycardia

c. sinus arrhythmia

d. sinus pause

Answer: c. sinus arrhythmia

Sinus arrhythmia, also called respiratory arrhythmia, occurs when the SA node fails to maintain a regular sinus rate from beat to beat.

What heart rhythm has a normal sinus rhythm, but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute?

a. sinus bradycardia

b. sinus tachycardia

c. sinus arrhythmia

d. sinus pause

Answer: a. sinus bradycardia

A sinus bradycardia has a normal sinus rhythm, but a heart rate less than 60 beast per minute.

What is the Mason Likar modification?

a. an adjustment made during metabolic formula used to account for errors due to obesity

b. an alteration to the formula determining gross oxygen consumption for clients with asthma

c. a different arrangement for placing electrodes in a 12-lead ECG

d. a way to add resistance to certain exercises without physically increasing the weight of the dumbbell or apparatus

Answer: c. a different arrangement for placing electrodes in a 12-lead ECG

The Mason Likar modification is a different arrangement for placing electrodes in a 12-lead ECG. This is sometimes necessary due to electrode movement, muscular activity, or respiration.

What is specifically recorded by LEAD III on a 12-lead ECG?

a. the difference in electrical potential between the left leg and left arm electrodes

b. the difference in electrical potential between the left leg and right arm electrodes

c. the difference in electrical potential between the left arm and right arm electrodes

d. the electrical potential at one site relative to zero potential

Answer: a. the difference in electrical potential between the left leg and left arm electrodes

Lead III on a 12-lead ECG measures the difference in electrical potential between the left leg and left arm electrodes.

What is the measurement provided by the PR interval on an ECG?

a. the time needed for the impulse to spread through the ventricles and pass through the SA node

b. the time needed for the impulse to spread through the atria and pass through the SA node

c. the time needed for the impulse to spread through the ventricles and pass through the AV junction

d. the time needed for the impulse to spread through the atria and pass through the AV junction

Answer: d. the time needed for the impulse to spread through the atria and pass through the AV junction

The PR interval on an ECG measures the time needed for the impulse to spread through the atria and pass thorugh the AV junction. The normal time for this to occur is 0.12-0.20 seconds. longer intervals can indicate blockage

What does the horizontal aspect of the ECG measure?

a. voltage

b. duration

c. watts

d. waveforms

Answer: b. duration

The horizontal aspect of the ECG measures duration. The smaller squares are 0.04 seconds in duration and the larger ones are 0.20 seconds in duration.

In what part of the heart do cardiac impulses originate?

a. SA node

b. AV node

c. bundle of His

d. left atrium

Answer: a. SA node

Cardiac impulses orginate in the SA node. from here, they spread to the artria and cause depolarization, showing up on the ECG as a P wave.

What is the normal polarity of a myocardial cell during the resting period, which causes the electrical potential in for the cell?

a. positively charged

b. negatively charged

c. outside the cell membrane is negatively charged, inside is positively charged

d. inside the cell membrane is negatively charged, outside is positively charged

Answer: d. inside the cell membrane is negatively charged, outside is positively charged

The normal polarity of a myocardial cell during the resting period, which causes the electrical potential in for the cell, is outside the cell membrane is negatively charged, inside is positively charged. This has brought about the term "polarized cell" for a normal resting myocardial cell.

If a client is cycling at 60rpm on a Monark leg ergometer, what is the velocity of the pedaling?

a. 132m/min

b. 180m/min

c. 360m/min

d. 400m/min

Answer: c. 360m/min

A client cycling at 60rpm on a Monark leg ergometer is pedaling at 360m/min. The calculation for monark cycle ergometer is to multiply the rpm by 6m/rev

What is the horizontal component of the walking formula?

a. the product of the fractional grade of the treadmill multiplied by the speed of the treadmill

b. the product of the speed of the treadmill in meters per minute, multiplied by 0.1

c. the degree angle of inclination of the treadmill

d. the percent grade of the treadmill

Answer: b. the product of the speed of the treadmill in meters per minute, multiplied by 0.1

The horizontal component of the walking formula is the product of the speed of the treadmill in meters per minute, multiplied by 0.1. The product is the oxygen uptake of walking forward on the treadmill.

What is the weight of an 81kg client in pounds?

a. 23 pounds

b. 36.8 pounds

c. 178.2 pounds

d. 190 pounds

Answer: c. 178.2 pounds

A client weighing 81kg weighs 178.2 pounds. This conversion is done by multiplying the weight in kg by 2.2 to get the weight in pounds.

How many meters is equivalent to 36.2 inches?

a. 1435 meters

b. 1.0 meters

c. 0.72 meters

d. 0.92 meters

Answer: d. 0.92 meters

36.2 inches is equivalent to 0.92 meters. The conversion factor is to multiply by 0.254 to yield the answer in meters.

If the gross oxygen uptake is 15.0 mL per kg per min, what is the net oxygen uptake?

a 4.28 mLkg^-1min^-1

b. 11.5 mLkg^-1min^-1

c. 18.3 mLkg^-1min^-1

d. there is no way to calculate this fro the information provided

Answer: b. 11.5 mLkg^-1min^-1

If the gross oxygen uptake is mL per kg per minute, the net oxygen uptake is 11.5 mLkg^-1min^-1.

What is the absolute total caloric expenditure of 5.0 lb of body weight?

a. 17,500 kcal

b. 8750 kcal

c. 3500 kcal

d. 17.5 kcal

Answer: a. 17,500 kcal

The absolute total caloric expenditure of 5.0 lb of body weight is 17, kcal. This conversion from body weight to total kilocalories is performed by multiplying body weight in pounds by 3500, thus 17,500 kcal

What is the MET equivalent to 7.0 mL per kg per minute?

a. 24.5 METs

b. 12 METs

c. 2 METs

d. 1 MET

Answer: c. 2 METs

The MET equivalent to 7.0 mL per kg per minute is 2 METs. This is determined by dividing 7.0 by 3.5 and the answer is then 2 METs.

What is defined as the sum of the oxygen cost of physical activity and the resting component?

a. net oxygen consumption

b. gross oxygen consumption

c. maximum oxygen consumption

d. comprehensive oxygen consumption

Answer: b. gross oxygen consumption

Gross (or total) oxygen consumption is defined as the sum of the oxygen cost of physical activity and the resting component. this is the form used in the ACSM metabolic formula.

Based on the amount of energy that is stored in one pound of fat, how many miles would you have to run in order to burn enough calories to lose a pound of fat, knowing that walking or running a mile burns 100 calories?

a. 5 miles

b. 10 miles

c. 25 miles

d. 35 miles

Answer: d. 35 miles

Based on the amount of energy that is stored in one pound of fat, you would have to run 35 miles in order to burn enough calories to lose a pound of fat. This is because there are 3500 calories stored in a pound of fat, which is where most of the body's unused (excess) energy is stored.

For the sake of energy expenditure measurement, what two values are considered to be equivalent?

a. METs and resting relative oxygen consumption (3.5 mLkg^-1min^-1)

b. METs and kcal expended

c. Watts and kcal

d. METs and watts

Answer: a. METs and resting relative oxygen consumption (3.5 mLkg^-1min^-1)

For the sake of energy expenditure measurement, METs and resting relative oxygen consumption are considered to be equivalent or 3.5 mLkg^-1min^-1.

What is the ACSM resting relative oxygen consumption always assumed to be, regardless of gender, age, and fitness level?

a. 20 mL per kg per minute

b. 7 mL per kg per minute

c. 3.5 mL per kg per minute

d. 1.2 mL per kg per minute

Answer: c. 3.5 mL per kg per minute

The ACSM resting relative oxygen consumption is always assumed to be, regardless of gender, age, and fitness level, 3.5 mL per kg per minute.

Relative oxygen consumption is the rate of oxygen consumption relative to body weight. This is expressed in what unit(s)?

a. L per min (L/min)

b. mLkg^-1minute^-1

c. MET

d. Watts per kg (watts/kg)

Answer: b. mLkg^-1minute^-1

Relative oxygen consumption is the rate of oxygen consumption to relative to body weight and is expressed in mL (of oxygen) per kg (body weight) per minute.

How much energy is expended from one liter of consumed oxygen?

a. 5 kcal

b. 10 kcal

c. 15 kcal

d. 20 kcal

Answer: a. 5 kcal

One liter of consumed oxygen expends 5 kilocalories of energy or 20.9 kilojoules.

Which of these incidents is a specific type of negligence claimed against an individual with some authority to practice and arises from their responsibility to a client?

a. negligence

b. malpractice

c. tort

d. failure to perform

Answer: b. malpractice

Malpractice is a specific type of negligence claimed against an individual with some authority to practice and arises from their responsibility to a client. The claim usually pertains to a failure to perform professional duties and often involves an injury.

What type of protections are offered by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)?

a. client and patient records are kept secure

b. staff records are kept secure

c. written and electronic records are included

d. all of the above

Answer: d. all of the above

All of these answers accurately portray protections offered by HIPPA. Patient, client, and staff records are protected, in both written and electronic form, and only those with legitimate need to view the data are allowed access to it.

Which of the following is not a generally accepted entity that provides published guidelines or criteria for risk stratification?

a. The National institute of Health

b. YMCA

c. The American College of Cardiology

d. The American College of Sports

Answer: a. The National Institutes of Health

The National Institutes of Health is not a generally accepted entity that provides published guidelines or criteria for risk stratification. Such criteria help to determine a participant's eligibility to participate and can sometimes be tied in with insurance reimbursement.

Which of the following are not purposes for having a budget?

a. being accountable for expenses

b. evaluation program financial performance

c. developing a financial plan

d. determining if revenue generated is sufficient to cover expenses

Answer: d. determining if revenue generated is sufficient to cover expenses

Determing if revenue generated is sufficient to cover expenses is not a purpose for having a budget; rather, it is a method of profit-and-loss analysis. Without a budget, it would not be possible to determine what actual revenue was generated because there would be no clear delineation between expenses and profit/revenue.

Holding regular staff meetings, complying with the organizational chart, and having an "open door" policy are all important way to do what?

a. encourage staff development and professional growth

b. ensure proper policy implementation across the entire staff

c. foster effective communication among staff and members

d. police competency in credentialed staff

Answer: c. foster effective communication among staff and members

Holding regular staff meetings, complying with the organizational chart, and having an "open door" polic are all important ways to foster effective communication among staff members. The hope is that communications will flow up and down the organizational chart and this furthers staff cohesiveness and competency.

Which of the following staffing roles is unlikely to be found in a fitness setting?

a. applied exercise physiologist

b. personal trainers

c. registered nutritionist

d. clinical exercise physiologists

Answer: d. clinical exercise physiologists

A clinical exercise physiologist is unlikely to be found in a fitness setting. An applied exercise physiologist, instead, would be found in this setting. additionally, massage therapist and other allied health professionals may be found.

Which of the following is not a usual activity of a program director?

a. to act as a counselor by listening to staff and clients and offering opinions, regardless of how difficult they may be to relay

b. to assess program and client needs by monitoring safety

c. to motivate clients and staff by demonstrating strong communication skills and demonstrating enthusiasm

d. to ensure adequate staffing by developing and coordinating work schedules

Answer: a. to act as a counselor by listening to staff and clients and offering opinions, regardless of how difficult they may be to relay

To act as a counselor by listening to staff and clients and offering opinions, regardless of how difficult they may be to relay, is not a usually activity of a program director. The opinions should be offered openly, but without offense.

Which type of diet uses no animal products at all?

a. vegan

b. vegetarian

c. lacto-ovo-vegetarian

d. lacto vegetarian

Answer: a. vegan

A vegan diet uses no animla products at all. These clients tend to live overall healthy lives and have lower incidences of cancer, heart disease, and hypertension

Which type of dietary practice has shown a reduction in the incidence of heart disease, certain cancers, and other diseases?

a. high protein, low carbohydrate diets

b. mediterranean diets

c. vegetarian diets

d. vegan diets

Answer: b. mediterranean diet

Mediterranean diets have shown a reduction in the incidence of heart disease, certain cancers, and other diseases. These consist of high amounts of complex carbs, fiber, and fruits and vegetables, but limited meats.

Clients with which chronic disease should perform daily weigh-ins to monitor body weight and fluid and also be very attentive to sodium intake?

a. hypertension

b. cardiovascular disease

c. chronic heart failure

d. pulmonary disease.

Answer: c. chronic heart failure

Clients with chronic heart failure should perform daily weigh-ins to monitor body weight and fluid and also be very attentive to sodium intake. They should also limit their daily fluid intake to 2.0L per day.

What does the National Institutes of Health (NIH) recommend as a health and realistic weight loss goal for patients whose BMI indicates a need for weight loss?

a. 2-4 pounds per week

b. 10% of initial weight over 6 months' time

c. 15% of initial weight over 6 momths' time

d. decreasing BMI by 3-5 points over 6 months

Answer: b. 10% of initial weight over 6 months' time

The National Institutes of Health (NIH) recommends 10% of initial weight over 6 months' time as a healthy and realistic weight loss goal for patients whose BMI indicates a need for weight loss. Anyone with a BMI over 30 could benefit from pharmacological assistance and a BMI over 40 may indicate weight loss surgical intervention.

What condition affecting women is characterized by eating disorders, excessive exercise, and amenorrhea?

a. osteoporosis

b. exercise bulimia

c. triathlons

d. the female athlete triad

Answer: d. the female athlete triad

The female athlete triad is characterized by eating disorders, excessive exercise, and amenorrhea. This dangerous and potentially deadly combination results in osteoporosis and low bone density and usually requires medical and therapeutic intervention.

What frequency supplemented nutritional need actually is completely met by a normal balanced diet and doesn't require supplementation?

a. creatine

b. calcium

c. protein

d. amino acids

Answer: c. protein

Protein is frequently supplemented, but the requirement for it is completely met by a normal balanced diet. even if not entirely met by diet, protein doesn't require supplementation, as it is not a significant source of energy during exercise anyway.

What nutritional deficiency can cause anemia that manifest as fatigue and poor exercise or sport performance?

a. iron

b. calcium

c. vitamin k

d. vitamin a

Answer: a. iron

An iron deficiency can cause anemia that manifests as fatigue and poor exercise or sport performance. To avoid this, foods rich in iron should be eaten, such as meats, legumes, eggs, grains, and dark green vegetables.

Which ergogenic aid reports the side effects of increasing lipid-related risk factors for cardiovascular disease and altering glucose metabolism?

a. dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

b. creatine monohydrate

c. anabolic steroids

d. herbal supplements

Answer: c. anabolic steroids

Anabolic steroids have the reported the side effect of increasing lipid-related risk factors for cardiovascular disease and altering glucose metabolism.

What is the average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the requirements of 50% of healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group?

a. recommended daily allowance

b. estimated average requirements

c. adequate average intake

d. upper limits

Answer: b. estimated average requirement

The average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet requirements of 50% of healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group is the estimated average requirement. Vitamin supplements should be used judiciously because fat-soluble ones can accumulate to dangerous levels.

How much energy is contained in a gram of protein?

a. 2 kcal

b. 4 kcal

c. 8 kcal

d. 10kcal

Answer: b. 4 kcal

Protein contains 4 kcal of energy per gram. When choosing proteins for consumption, the total amount should be about 10-15% the daily food intake, or about 0.8g per pound of body weight.

What type of healthy fats includes soybean oil, flaxseed oil, walnuts, salmon, and trout?

a. polyunsaturated omega-3 fats

b. polyunsaturated omega-6 fats

c. monounsaturated fats

d. trans fats

Answer: a. polyunsaturated omega-3 fats

Polyunsaturated Omega-3 fats include soybean oil, fleaxseed oil, walnuts, salmon, and trout. Omega-6 and monounsaturated fats are also very health and should comprise the majority of daily fat intake, instead of other less healthy types.

What is the recommended daily intake of carbohydrates as a percentage of total dietary consumption?

a. 25-30%

b. 30-45%

c. 45-60%

d. 50-70%

Answer: c. 45-60%

The recommended daily intake of carbohydrates as a percentage of total dietary consumption is 45-60%. This should consist of as many fruits, vegetables, and whole grain breads / cereals / pastas as possible, avoiding processed sugars.

What information is provided by the Harris-Benedict Equation?

a. total body mass

b. thermic effect of food

c. thermic effect of exercise

d. resting metabolic rate

Answer: d. resting metabolic rate

The Harris-Benedict equation provides the resting metabolic rate. It is a predictive equation that uses activity level adjustments, height, weight, and age to estimate resting energy expenditure

Which of the following is a safe and effective way to reduce excess body fat and create a more healthy physique?

a. spot reduction

b. vibrating belts

c. electrical stimulators

d. creating a caloric deficit

Answer: d. creating a caloric deficit

Creating a caloric deficit is a safe and effective way to reduce excess body fat and create a more healthy physique. Eating healthy foods combined with exercise to create a caloric deficit as along term lifestyle choice is the best way to create a healthy body composition.

What term is used when several coronary artery disease risk factors occur concurrently and simultaneously with abdominal obesity?

a. metabolic syndrome

b. obesity syndrome

c. androidal syndrome

d. cardiovascular syndrome

Answer: a. metabolic syndrome

Metabolic syndrome is when several coronary artery disease risk factors occur concurrently and simultaneously with abdominal obesity. These risks increase chances of cardiovascular disease and diabetes.

What body type describes when excess body fast is centrally distributed around the abdominal area, also referred to as abdominal obesity?

a. peripheral pattern

b. gynoid pattern

c. android pattern

d. abdominal pattern

Answer: c. android pattern

Android pattern describes when excess body fat is centrally distributed around the abdominal area, also referred to as abdominal obesity. This type of fat distribution carries additional risk for many diseases and conditions.

What clinical limits define the eating disorder anorexia nervosa?

a. BMI < 20 and body weight at least 15% below the lowest value for height

b. BMI < 17.5 and body weight at least 15% below the lowest value for height

c. BMI < 20 and body weight at least 10% below the lowest value for height

d. BMI < 17.5 and body weight at least 20% below the lowest value for height

Answer: b. BMI < 17.5 and body weight at least 15% below the lowest value for height

Having a BMI <17.5 and body weight at least 15% below the lowest value for height are the clinicial limits defining the eating disorder anorexia nervosa. This condition consists of several psychological issues regarding self-esteem and body image, and can often manifest as inability to consume enough calories from food to support energy requirements to maintain a normal body weight.

What areas can cause error when performing body composition evaluation using the bioelectric impedance method?

a. skill of the person performing the procedure

b. hydration and time of last exercise session

c. improper entry of measurements in the equation

d. using incorrect locations for the caliper measurement

Answer: b. hydration and time of last exercise session.

Hydration and time of last exercise session can cause error when performing body composition evaluation via bioelectric impedance. The other answers apply to other methods of determining body composition, such as the skinfold method.

How is total lean mass measured or determine?

a. total body weight - body fat percentage

b. BMI

c. skinfold testing

d. total body mass-fat mass

Answer: d. total body mass-fat mass

Total lean mass is determined by subtracting the fat mass from total body mass. The total fat mass is first determine by multiplying total body weight by body fat percentage.

How does the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention define being "overweight"?

a. BMI > 20

b. body fat > 30

c. body weight that is higher than what is considered healthy for a specific height

d. body weight that is high enough that it creates additional disease risk factors

Answer: c. body weight that is higher than what is considered healthy for a specific height

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention define being "overweight" as having a body weight that is higher than what is considered healthy for a specific height. Having this excess body fat describes an estimated 65% of Americans.

Which of the following is not an objective indicator of obesity?

a. BMI > 20

b. BMI > 30

c. males body fat > 25

d. females waist circumference > 88cm

Answer: a. BMI > 20

Having a BMI over 20 is not an objective indicator of obesity; rather, a BMI over 30 is such an indicator. All the other answers are considered objective indicators of obesity.

What type of resistance exercise modification is best for clients with hypertension?

a. regular use of the Valsalva maneuver

b. frequent, low intensity isometric movements

c. maximal effort for short intervals

d. high repetition, low-intensity programs

Answer: d. high repetition, low-intensity programs

High repetition, low-intensity programs are the best resistance exercise modification for clients with hypertension. Valsalva maneuver, isometric movements, and maximal effort should specifically be avoided for this population of clients.

What is the type of breathing recommended while performing resistance training?

a. exhaling during eccentric part of exercise, inhaling during concentric part

b. exhaling during the concentric part, inhaling during the eccentric part

c. valsalva maneuver

d. holding breath during the harder parts of moving the weight

Answer: b. exhaling during the concentric part, inhaling during the eccentric part

Recommended breathing while performing resistance training is to exhale during the concentric part and inhale during the eccentric part. The breath should never be held to avoid an abrupt increase in arterial blood pressure.

What is the inability to move a resistance through a range of motion with proper form?

a. functional impedance

b. muscular fatigue

c. volitional fatigue

d. muscular endurance

Answer: c. volitional fatigue

Vilitional fatigue is the inability to move a resistance through a range of motion with proper form. The greater the resistance, the fewer repetitions will be properly performed before reaching the point of fatigue.

Decreased low back pain, physiological stress, and bone mineral loss are some benefits of what type of training?

a. resistance training

b. flexibility training

c. balance training

d. cardiovascular training

Answer: a. resistance training

Decreased low back pain, physiological stress, and bone mineral loss are some benefits of resistance training. Additional benefits include improved ability to perform daily functions (increased functional independence) and maintenance of lean body mass.

What is the maximum amount of resistance a muscle or muscle group can overcome?

a. muscular endurance

b. muscular strength

c. concentric strength

d. eccentric strength

Answer: b. muscular strength

The maximum amount of resistance a muscle or muscle group can overcome is its muscular strength. A minimum amount of muscular strength is required for everyone, regardless of their fitness goals, simply to safely maintain every day functions in life.

Which of the following is not a physiologic effect of the warm-up stage of exercising?

a. increased muscle temperature

b. increased oxygen transfer from blood to working muscles

c. increased muscle viscosity

d. increased muscular enzyme activity

Answer: c. increased muscle viscosity

Increased muscle viscosity is not a physiologic effect of warm-up; rather, muscle viscosity is decreased during the warm-up. The other choices are all effects of the warm-up and also increased elasticity of muscles and connective tissues.

During what point in an exercise session should flexibility training be conducted?

a. warm up

b. cardiovascular training

c. resistance training

d. cool-down

Answer: d. cool-down

Flexibility training should be conducted during the cool-down of an exercise session. At this time, the muscles' blood flow and increased temperature lend towards increased pliability, which makes this time prime for stretching.

What terms apply during the initial stage of conditioning?

a 10-15 minute warm-up, moderate intensity, 15-30 minute duration, 3-4 days a week

b. 10-15 minute warm-up, moderate to high intensity, 30-40 minute duration, 5-6 days a week

c. 10-15 minute warm up, moderate intensity, 30-45 minute duration, 4-6 days per week

d. 10-15 minute warm-up, low intensity, 30 minute duration, 3-4 days a week

Answer: a. 10-15 minute warm-up, moderate intensity, 15-30 minute duration, 3-4 days a week

During the initial stage of conditiong, appropriate terms would be 10-15 min warm-up moderate intensity, 15-30 min duration, 3-4 days a week. This should be progressed through the improvement stage and then to the maintenance stage when fitness goals have been attained.

Which of the following statements about duration is not true?

a high-intensity and short duration exercise is associated with higher risk of injury

b. excessive duration is associated with increased compliance

c. increases in duration should occur as adaptation occurs to maintain effectiveness

d. an inverse relationship exists between duration and intensity

Answer: b. excessive duration is associated with increased compliance

Excessive duration is not associated with increased compliance; rather, it is associated with decreased compliance and the higher risk of overuse injury and fatigue. The other statements about duration are true.

What is the recommended range of intensity for exercising?

a. 20-30% of max heart rate

b. 30-45% of max heart rate

c. 45-60% of max heart rate

d. 55-90% of max heart rate

Answer: d. 55-90% of max heart rate

The recommended range of intesnity for exercising is 55-99% of maximum heart rate. This should be adjusted to the lower side if exercising in hot, humid, polluted, or high latitude environments.

What definition below is correct for a MET?

a. the amount of oxygen intake used per minute during aerobic activity

b. the relative physiologic difficulty of an exercise

c. a measure of caloric content present in fats are digested during exercise

d. the caloric consumption of an individual while at complete rest

Answer: d. the caloric consumption of an individual while at complete rest

The correct definition of a MET is the caloric consumption of an individual while at complete rest. It is used to estimate the intensity level of aerobic exercise and in cardiac rehabilitation programs.

Which of the following is not a consideration when planning the intensity level of an activity?

a. fitness level

b. enjoyment (lends to compliance)

c. medical conditions

d. risk of orthopedic injury

Answer: b. enjoyment (lends to compliance)

Enjoyment is not a consideration when planning the intensity level of an activity. Whether or not the client enjoys it is relevant to compliance or whether or not they will continue with the program designed for them to reach fitness goals, but it is not relevant to the intensity level. mostly the medical and fitness considerations are what are most important to consider for intensity planning.

Which type of aerobics can benefit special populations such as pregnant women, the obese, arthritic, or elderly clients?

a. high-impact aerobics

b. low-impact aerobics

c. aquatic aerobics

d. cycling

Answer: c. aquatic aerobics

Aquatic aerobics can benefit special populations such as pregnant women, the obest, arthritic, or elderly clients. Aquatic aerobics combines buoyancy with resistance to provide similar benefits as other types of aerobic with less impact and more individualized intensity.

Which mode of exercise may indicate poor form due to weak quadriceps and gluteals, causing increased dependence on the handrails for support?

a. stair climbing

b. elliptical

c. treadmill

d. cycling

Answer: a. stair climbing

Stair climbing may indicate poor form due to weak quadriceps and gluteals causing increased dependence on the handrails for support. If the client exhibits poor form, intensity of the exercise can be decreased due to this compensation (leaning on the handrails).

What is the weekly duration of exercise recommended for a sedentary individual who is likely to be extremely deconditioned?

a. 200-300 minutes

b. 150-200 minutes

c. 60-150 minutes

d. 45-60 minutes

Answer: c. 60-150 minutes

The weekly duration of exercise recommended for a sedentary individual who is likely to be extremely deconditioned is 60-150 minutes. This person would be classified at a "poor" fitness level and should be worked into a program gradually, but consistently.

What types of activities are most effective for cardiovascular endurance?

a. small muscle groups are engaged cooperatively for longer periods (30 minutes or more)

b. small muscle groups are engaged in continuous, rhythmic activity

c. large muscle groups are engaged in continuous, rhythmic activity

d. large muscle groups are engaged in slow, intense bursts of activity

Answer: c. large muscle groups are engaged in continuous, rhythmic activity

Activities most effective for cardiovascular endurance are those that engage large muscle groups in continuous, rhythmic activity. Such activities can include walking, jogging, swimming, cycling, aerobics, stair climbing, or any number of other similar types of activities.

Which of the following correctly includes all components of a well-devised exercise plan?

a. warm-up, cardiovascular training, resistance training, flexibility training, cool-down

b. warm-up, cardiovascular training, flexibility training, cool-down

c. warm-up, resistance training, flexibility training, cool-down

d. warm-up, strength training, flexibility training, cool-down

Answer: a. warm-up, cardiovascular training, resistance training, flexibility training, cool-down

Warm-up, cardiovascular training, resistance training, flexibility training, and cool-down are the components of a well-devised exercise plan. Performing these regularly in accordance with stated guidelines can help maintain functional fitness and disease prevention.

What are ACSM recommendations for flexibility training?

a. stretching should immediately precede a workout and be performed 2-3 days per week

b. stretching to the point of tightness (but not to pain) and holding the stretch for 30-40 seconds

c. only the most used muscle groups need stretching

d. stretching should be performed no less than 2-3 days per week, but ideally 5-7 days per week

Answer: d. stretching should be performed no less than 2-3 days per week, but ideally 5-7 days per week

ACSM recommendations for flexibility training indicate that stretching should be performed no less than 2-3 days per week, but ideally 5-7 days per week, and should be preceded by a warm-up. All major muscle groups should be stretched to the point of tightness, but not pain, holding for 15-30 seconds and performed for 2-4 repetitions.

The 2008 Physical Guidelines for Americans indicates all of the following guidelines for adults except what?

a. 2 hours and 30 minutes each week of moderate intensity exercise

b. aerobic episodes of at least 40 minutes long spread throughout the week

c. muscle strengthening activities for all major muscle groups 2 or more days per week

d. older adults should follow the same guidelines if possible

Answer: b. aerobic episodes of at least 40 minutes long spread throughout the week

The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans indicates all of these guidelines for adults except that the aerobic episodes should not be 40 minutes long spread throughout the week; rather, they should be at least 10 minutes long spread throughout the week.

What is the current recommendation by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for adults performing moderate-intensity physical activity?

a. at least 30 minutes on 5+ days each week

b. at least 20 minutes on 5-7 days each week

c. at least 45 minutes on 3 days each week

d. at least 20 minutes on 3 days each week

Answer: a. at least 30 minutes on 5 + days each week

The current recommendation by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for adults performing moderate-intensity physical activity is at least 30 minutes on 5 or more days each week. If the intensity level is vigorous, the recommendation is 20 minutes on 3 days each week.

Which category 1 medication is used to treat bradyarrhythmias?

a. epinephrine

b. lidocaine

c. oxygen

d. atropine

Answer: d. atropine

Atropine is a category I medication that is parasympathetic blocking agent used to treat bradyarrhythmias.

If a client begins to exhibit headache and confusion, what possible medical conditions may be present?

a. seizure, cardiac arrest, or myocardial infarction

b. hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, transient ischemic attack, or stroke

c. internal cardiac defibrillator discharge

d. bronchospasm or syncope

Answer: b. hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, transient ischemic attack, or stroke

If a client begins to exhibit headache and confusion, there is a possibility that hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia, transient ischemic attack, or stroke may be present. Any activity should be immediately stopped and other symptoms and signs should be assessed to determine the next course of action.

Which of the following abnormal heart rhythms does not require emergency response?

a. mild, asymptomatic bradycardia

b. vetricular fibrillation

c. atrial fibrillation

d. sypraventricular trachycardia

Answer: a. mild, asymptomatic bradycarida

Mild, asymptomatic bradycardia does not require emergency response. If the bradycardia becomes symptomatic or more severe, then emergency response is warranted.

Symptoms of myocardial infarction (MI) include all the following except what?

a. pain that radiates down left arm, chest, back or jaw

b. ventricular fibrillation

c. severe headache

d. cool, clammy skin

Answer: c. severe headache

Symptoms of myocardial infarction (MI) include all these symptoms except severe headache. A severe headache could possibly be indicative of transient ischemic attack or stroke, but not MI.

Profuse sweating, cold and clammy skin, muscle spasm, headache, nausea, loss of consciousness, low blood pressure, and normal to slightly high body temperature are signs of what heat-related emergency?

a. heat exhaustion

b. heat stroke

c. heat cramps

d. heat syncope

Answer: a. heat exhaustion

Heat exhaustion exhibits the symptoms of profuse sweating, cold, and clammy skin, muscle spasm, headache, nausea, loss of consciousness, low blood pressure, and normal to slightly high body temperature. This is a true emergency and should initiate emergency responding.

Which of the descriptions below accurately represents the RICES protocol to injury care?

a. rest, ice, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, emergency, and stabilize

b. rest, ice, compression, exhaust, and splint

c. rest, isolate, compression, emergency, and splint

d. rest, ice, compression, elevation, and stabilization

Answer: d. rest, ice, compression, elevation, and stabilization

The correct description for the RICES protocol to injury care is: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, and Stabilization. These steps, when taken as soon as possible upon injury occurrence, can achieve the objectives of decreasing pain, reducing swelling, and preventing further injury or loss of function.

Which of the following is not an immediate step in responding to a client who experiences syncope while in the fitness environment?

a. elevate legs if no injury is apparent

b. immediately begin CPR

c. turn victim on side if vomiting occurs

d. loosen tight clothing and maintain open airway

Answer: b. immediately begin CPR

Immediately beginning CPR is not a step in responding to a client who experiences syncope while in the fitness environment. If the other actions are taken and the client does not respond and pulse and breathing cease, then CPR would be appropriate.

Which of the following is not an important part of assessing a client's physical suitability for exercise testing and training?

a. reviewing medial history

b. assessing cardiac risk

c. discussing fitness goals

d. evaluating physical exam findings

Answer: c. discussing fitness goals

While important to the overall success of a fitness program, discussing the client's fitness goals is not an important part of the physical suitability assessment for exercise testing and training.

Which of the following is not a necessary piece of information that should be posted and clearly visible as part of a safety plan?

a. evacuation routes

b. first aid kit locations

c. emergency procedures near phones

d. names of staff members who are CPR trained

Answer: d. names of staff members who are CPR trained

The names of staff members who are CPR trained are not part of necessary posted information. While it is important for staff members to be certified, it is neither required, nor does it need to be posted.

Which behaviors can be helpful in reducing the negative symptoms of high altitude?

a. ascend quickly to quickly acclimate to the altitude

b. sleep at an altitude higher than the elevation where exercise will occur

c. sleep at an altitude lower than the elevation where exercise will occur

d. eat a high fat diet and exercise regularly

Answer: c. sleep at an altitude lower than the elevation where exercise will occur

To help reduce the negative symptoms of high altitude, sleep at an altitude lower than the elevation where exercise will occur. Also, ascend slowly, eat high-carbohydrate diet, and avoid exercising until symptoms subside.

What possible medical complications can include dehydration, rhabdomyolysis, renal failure, and electrolyte disturbances?

a. thermal complications

b. metabolic complications

c. neurologic complications

d. endocrine complications

Answer: b. metabolic complications

Some possible metabolic complications are dehydration, rhabdomyolysis, renal failure, and electrolyte disturbances. It is important to be familiar with the various symptoms of possible complications to exercise in order to be able to react safely should they arise.

At what point are the heart rate and blood pressure measure when conducting exercise testing?

a. repeatedly before, during, and after testing

b. only before and after the testing

c. at three minute intervals throughout the testing

d. before the test while at rest and then 30 seconds after the testing

Answer: a. repeatedly before, during, and after testing

Heart rate and blood pressure are tested repeatedly before, during, and after the testing is complete. For obtaining the heart rate, a 12-lead ECG is used.

What is the name of a treadmill protocol that can be used to acquire blood pressure and ECG readings while the incline and pace of the treadmill are gradually increased in 3-minute increments?

a. naughton

b. ellestad

c. balke-ware

d. bruce

Answer: d. bruce

The bruce protocol is a treadmill protocol that can be used to acquire blood pressure and ECG reading while the incline and pace of the treadmill are gradually increased in 3-minute increments. This test may not be appropriate for clients who are deconditioned.

Goniometers, inclinometers, and tape measures are all equipment used for assessing what?

a. strength

b. endurance

c. flexibility

d. balance

Answer: c. flexibility

Goniometers, inclinometers, and tape measures are all equipment used for assessing flexibility. They are all relatively easy to use and inexpensive.

In what test is submaximal force held for as long as possible as an index of endurance?

a. dynamic endurance

b. static endurance

c. callisthenic testing

d. goniometry

Answer: b. static endurance

In static endurance testing, submaximal force is held for as long as possible as an index of endurance. The same testing devices that assessed static strength can be used for this test of static endurance.

What piece of muscular strength testing equipment is often used to assess leg, back, and forearm strength?

a. strain gauge

b. cable tensiometer

c. isotonic weights

d. dynamometer

Answer: d. dynamometer

The dynamometer is often used to assess leg, back, and forearm strength. It is very portable and can be used to test multiple clients, but is limited to testing only a few muscle groups.

What test is administered in order to track a client's ECG abnormalities throughout the course of the day?

a. ventriculography

b. Holter ECG monitoring

c. dipyridamole imaging

d. exercise echocardiography

Answer: b. Holter ECG monitoring

Holter ECG monitoring is administered in order to track a client's ECG abnormalities throughout the course of a day. The results can be compared with the client's activity log to determine which of the day's activities may have caused abnormal ECG results.

In the Rockport test, when is the client's heart rate measured?

a. immediately for 15 seconds posttest

b. immediately for 30 second posttest

c. after a 30 second recovery, for 15 seconds posttest

d. after 1 minute of recovery, for 15 seconds posttest

Answer: a. immediately for 15 seconds posttest

During a 3-minute stage of a graded exercise test, when should the heart rate be assessed?

a. every minute

b. at minute 3 and each subsequent third minute until steady state is achieved

c. at minute 2 and then after the third minute, every 3 minutes until steady is achieved

d. at minutes 2 and 3, and then at every minute until steady state is achieved

Answer: d. at minutes 2 and 3, and then at every minute until steady state is achieved

What form of body composition assessment uses a high-frequency, low-level current to assess body fat percentage?

a. bioelectric impedance

b. anthropometry

c. electrohydrostatic

d. dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

Answer: a. bioelectric impedance

The body composition assessment that uses a high-frequency, low-level current to asses body fat percentage is bioelectric impedance. This is a relatively easy, inexpensive way to assess body fat percentage with a low level of error.

Having a BMI of what number indicates that a client is overweight?

a. 18

b. 20

c. 25

d. 30

Answer: c. 25

Having a BMI of 25 indicates that a client is overweight. A BMI over 30 indicates obesity.

Which physical assessment for body composition is based on Archimedes' principle?

a. skinfold measurement

b. hydrostatic weighing

c. anthropometry

d. body mass index (BMI)

Answer: b. hydrostatic weighing

Hydrostatic weighin is a body composition assessment based on Archimedes' principle. It states that a body immersed in water will be buoyed by a counterforce equal to the weight of the water displaced

What is the recommended order for fitness assessments when conducted on the same day?

a. body composition, flexibility, resting measurements, muscular fitness, cardiorespiratory fitness

b. resting measurements, flexibility, body composition, muscular fitness, cardiorespiratory fitness

c. resting measurements, body composition, cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular fitness, flexibility

d. flexibility, resting measurements, body composition, muscular fitness, cardiorespiratory fitness

Answer: c. resting measurements, body composition, cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular fitness, flexibility

What does an implied consent form not provide?

a. evidence that client was informed of purposes, procedures, and risks of exercise testing

b. coverage for improper test administration due to accidental omissions

c. written documentation of providing necessary information to the client prior to the testing

d. information to the client so that they can make an informed decisions about participating in the exercise testing

Answer: b. coverage for improper test administration due to accidental omissions

An implied consent for does not provide coverage for improper test administration due to accidental omissions. It does provide written documentation (evidence) that the client was informed about the test procedures and allows them to make a decision about participating in the testing.

In which risk level would a client with moderate obesity and hypertension be placed for exercise testing?

a. high risk

b. moderate risk

c. low risk

d. low risk, as long as his physician has approved exercise with his medical conditions

Answer: a. high risk

A client with moderate obesity and hypertension should be placed in the high risk level for exercise testing due to having diagnosed metabolic disease (hypertension) and being obese.

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to fitness testing?

a. severe arterial hypertension

b. ventricular aneurysm

c. acute pericarditis

d. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Answer: c. acute pericarditis

Acute pericarditis is an absolute contraindication to fitness testing. The other answers are relative, depending upon the individual and the conditions, and the client may be able to perform modified testing if the benefits of exercise outweigh the risks.

What provides health and fitness professionals with information that can define necessary modifications to exercise programs?

a. health appraisal

b. health history

c. physical assessment

d. laboratory tests

Answer: a. health appraisal

A health appraisal provides health and fitness professionals with information that can define necessary modifications to exercise in programs. Health history, physical assessment, and lab tests can be part of a thorough health appraisal

Which of the following is not a survey used to assess or measure levels of depression, hostility, or anxiety?

a. herridge cardiopulmonary questionnaire

b. jenkins activity survey

c. cardiac depression scale

d. Ferrans and Powers quality of life index

Answer: d. Ferrans and Powers quality of life index

The Ferrans and Powers quality of life index is not a survey used to assess or measure levels of depression, hostility, or anxiety; rather, it is a pulmonary-specific quality of life survey.

In what stage of motivational readiness is the client who participates in the CDC/ASCM recommended level of exercise for less than 6 months?

a. precontemplation

b. contemplation

c. preparation

d. action

Answer: d. action

The client who participates in the CDC/ACSM recommended level of exercise for less than 6 months is in the action phase of motivational readiness.

What are the five A's of counseling a client who has experienced a lapse in exercise motivation in order to prevent it from getting words and becoming a relapse or total collapse?

a. address failures, assess motivation, advise changes, assist, arrange follow-up

b. address agenda, assess, admonish failings, advise improvement, appreciate improvement

c. address agenda, assess, advise, assist, arrange follow-up

d. agenda, assurance, advise, ask questions, advance the program

Answer: c. address agenda, assess, advise, assist, arrange follow up

The five A's of counseling a client who has experienced a lapse in exercise motivation in order to prevent it from getting worse are address agenda, assess, advise, assist, and arrange follow-up. These can help the fitness professional effectively understand the client's lapse and get that client back on track with the prescribed fitness program.

What type of assessment is used by the fitness professional to establish a measurement of psychological and behavioral baseline?

a. psychological assessment

b. psychosocial assessment

c. socio-behavioral assessment

d. benchmark assessment

Answer: b. psychosocial assessment

A psychosocial assessment is used by the fitness professional to establish a measurement of psychological and behavioral baseline. It enables the professional to understand areas that may need extra focus, types of intervention that may be useful, and other such things to help tailor the program to the individual client's needs.

Which of the following types of client is a candidate for referral to a mental health professional rather than just one who is difficult?

a. hostile participant

b. dissatisfied participant

c. chronic complainer

d. depressed participant

Answer: d. depressed participant

The depressed participant is a candidate for referral to a mental health professional rather than just one who is difficult because their symptoms are far reaching into their life, not just relevant to exercise, and are very serious. These client's symptoms should be addressed by a professional with the necessary specific expertise.

Participants in exercise programs who are in the earlier stages are more likely to benefit from what type of strategies?

a. legitimizing their concerns

b. behavioral strategies

c. perceptive strategies

d. cognitive strategies

Answer: d. cognitive strategies

Participants in exercise programs who are in the earlier stages are more likely to benefit from cognitive strategies. This can be reading or watching a demo, but not having the expectation to participate

What is one way to encourage a participant to find time and enjoyment from exercise by eliminating barriers to maintaining an exercise program?

a. teach problem solving techniques that remove perceived barriers

b. highlighting the benefits of exercise

c. assessing self-efficacy

d. showing how to observe successes vicariously

Answer: a. teach problem solving techniques that remove perceived barriers

What is one of the strongest predictors for the adoption of a regular program of exercise?

a. self-control

b. attitude

c. self-efficacy

d. expectations

Answer: c. self-efficacy

Self-efficacy is one of the strongest predictors for the adoption of a regular program of exercise. This is the confidence in the ability to perform an action or skill and is vital in the continuation of an exercise program.

How behaviors and choices relate to health by considering costs and benefits is known as what model?

a. Transtheoretical Model of Health Behavior Change

b. Health Belief Model

c. Relapse and Prevention Model

d. Reinforcement Model

Answer: a. Transtheoretical Model of Health Behavior Change

The Transtheoretical Model of Health Behavior Change considers costs and benefits of behaviors and choices with regard to health. This model combines strategies of several other theories to explain the path toward making decisions to change health habits.

Which of the following does not accurately describe part of the Health Belief Model?

a. people will engage in a given behavior when they perceive threat of disease

b. taking action depends on the ease of overcoming barriers regardless of the perceived rewards or benefits

c. concept of self-efficacy is a major component of this model

d. incorporates cues to action

Answer: b. taking action depends on the ease of overcoming barriers regardless of the perceived rewards or benefits

Taking action depends on the ease of overcoming barriers regardless of the perceived rewards or benefits does not accurately describe part of the Health Belief Model. In fact, the taking action depends on whether the benefits outweigh the barriers.

What is a positive or negative consequence for performing or not performing a behavior?

a. intrinsic reward

b. extrinsic reward

c. cognitive behavior

d. reinforcement

Answer: d. reinforcement

Reinforcement is a positive or negative consequence for performing or not performing a behavior. This can be a simple comment acknowledging good performance or a more complex reward such as earning a motivational prize for a good or consistent performance

What is a set of assumptions accounting for the relationships between certain variables and a particular behavior of interest?

a. intervention

b. explanatory theory

c. conceptual framework

d. psychological theory

Answer: d. psychological theory

Psychological theory is a set of assumptions accounting for the relationships between certain variables and a particular behavior of interest. They can be used to provide a foundation for motivational skill-building in relation to exercise participation.

What is a valid reason for lowering the intensity of exercise at higher altitudes?

a. exposure to higher altitudes causes a decrease in pulmonary ventilation and heart rate

b. high altitudes cause a decrease in cardiac output at submaximal workloads

c. high altitudes cause an increase in pulmonary ventilation, heart rate, and cardiac output at submaximal workloads

d. the angina threshold is lower due to a 25% reduction in maximal oxygen consumption

Answer: c. high altitudes cause an increase in pulmonary ventilation, heart rate, and cardiac output at submaximal workloads

What type of measurement can provide guidelines for safe exercise in high heat and humidity environments?

a. heat syncope

b. ambient humidity gauge

c. wet bulb globe

d. thermohydrometer

Answer: c. wet bulb globe

A wet bulb globe can provide guidelines for safe exercise in high heat and humidity environments. It provides an index of environmental heat stress by measuring ambient temperature, relative humidity, and radiant heat

How does an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor function?

a. blunts node conduction resulting in lower ventricular response

b. reduces blood pressure and causes water loss through increased urine production

c. lowers blood pressure and controls ventricular arrhythmias

d. reduces myocardial oxygen demand and reduces blood pressure

Answer: d. reduces myocardial oxygen demand and reduces blood pressure

An angiotension-converting enzyme inhibitor functions by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and blood pressure. This is thought to increase exercise tolerance in patients with left ventricular dysfunction.

What pharmacologic therapy has been show to have positive impact in reducing cardiovascular events in high risk individuals?

a. beta adrenergic blockers

b. platelet inhibitors

c. nitrates

d. calcium channel antagonists

Answer: b. platelet inhibitors

Platelet inhibitors have been shown to have a positive impact in reducing cardiovascular events in high risk individuals. This category includes drugs such as aspirin, warfarin, and clopidogrel

Which diagnostic procedure technique listed blow accurately describes what is done during an echocardiography?

a. electrodes are placed that take images showing the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle and reveal whitened areas

b. uses ultrasound technology to evaluate heart muscle abnormalities, dysfunctions, and improper cardiac output

c. a radioisotope is injected into the central vein and scans then record images to evaluate changes in heart function

d. a radioisotope is injected and a planar singe-photon emission computed tomography scan is done to asses myocardial perfusion defects

Answer: b. uses ultrasound technology to evaluate heart muscle abnormalities, dysfunctions, and improper cardiac output

In an echocardiography, ultrasound technology is used to evaluate heart muscle abnormalities, dysfunctions, and improper cardiac output. This can be done at rest or under stressful conditions.

Which diagnostic test procedure for coronary heart disease involves the placement of a catheter that is threaded up to the heart for locating the exact place a vessel has become narrowed or blocked?

a. ventriculography

b. echocardiography

c. coronary angiography

d. electrocardiography

Answer: c. coronary angiography

Coronary angiography is the diagnostic test procedure for coronary heart disease involves the placement of a catheter that is threaded up to the heart for locating the exact place a vessel has become narrowed or blocked.

What condition is characterized by the modifiable risk factors of poor oral health, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, and high dietary trans fat?

a. cardiovascular disease

b. diabetes mellitus

c. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

d. obesity

Answer: a. cardiovascular disease

Cardiovascular disease is a condition characterized by the modifiable risk factors of poor oral health, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, and high dietary trans fat. Oral health and diet of high trans fats are thought to be emerging risk factors, while dyslipidemia (high cholesterol counts) and metabolic syndromes are more traditional risk factors.

What is an objective indication of a disease that is observed, discovered, or measured by a physician during examination?

a. sign

b. symptom

c. complaint

d. diagnostic

Answer: a. sign

A sign is an objective indicatoin of a disease that is observed, discovered, or measured by a physician during examination, such as swelling of a joint. These are often confused with symptoms, which are subjective and experienced by the patient (pain).

What is the name for a grouping of disease symptoms including unstable angina pectoris, myocardial infarction, and sudden cardiac death?

a. acute coronary syndrome

b. cardiovascular disease

c. atherothrombotic diseases

d. restrictive lung disease

Answer: a. acute coronary syndrome

Acute coronary syndrome is the name for a grouping of disease symptoms including unstable angina pectoris, myocardial infarction, and sudden cardiac death. These symptoms require immediate medical care.

What is a blood clot that travels from where it was formed in the body to another location?

a. hematoma

b. hemangioma

c. thrombus

d. embolus

Answer: d. embolus

An embolus is a blood clot, or thrombus, that travels from where it was formed in the body to another location. For example, a pulmonary embolus is a thrombus that has traveled to the lungs.

What condition presents as a loss of elasticity of the arteries characterized by the thickening and hardening of artery walls?

a. antherosclerosis

b. arteriosclerosis

c. thrombosis

d. endotheliosis

Answer: b. arteriosclerosis

Arteriosclerosis presents as a loss of elasticity of the arteries characterized by the thickening and hardening of artery walls. This can be caused by atherosclerosis, fatty deposits on the walls of the arteries causing the hardening and eventual blockage of the vessel.

What condition describes a grouping of diseases or conditions affecting the heart and lungs

a. cardiopulmonary impairment

b. high cholesterol

c. cardiovascular dysfunctional syndrome

d. cardiovascular disease

Answer: d. cardiovascular disease

Cardiovascular disease is a grouping of diseases or conditions affecting the heart and lungs. Risks of developing these conditions eleveate through time due to aging, lifestyle choices (environment, diet, smoking, etc.), and genetics.

Restrictive lung disease is a grouping of diseases and disorders that restrict lung volume and share some or all of which of the following features?

a. bronchoconstriction, edema in the airways, and chronic inflammatory processes

b. airflow limitations, hyperresponsive bronchioles, and airway remodeling

c. loss of alveolar-capillary unit function, altered mechanical function of thorax, and secondary cardiovascular dysfunction

d. inflammation and lesions on lung tissue, hyper secretion of mucus, and abnormal gas exchange

Answer: c. loss of alveolar-capillary unit function, altered mechanical function of thorax, and secondary cardiovascular dysfunction

Restrictive lung disease is a grouping of disease and disorders that restrict lung volume and share some or all of the features of loss of alveolar-capillary unit function, altered mechanical function of thorax, and secondary cardiovascular dysfunction. These may be as a result of neuromuscular diseases, chest disorders, pleural diseases, or parenchymal diseases.

What disease's pathophysiologic process includes airflow limitations, edema in the airways, airway hyperresponsiveness, and underlying inflammation?

a. asthma

b. restrictive lung disease

c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

d. cardiovascular disease (CVD)

Answer: a. asthma

Asthma's pathophysiologic process includes airflow limitations, edema in the airways, airway hyperresponsiveness, and underlying inflammation. This leads to shortness of breath, coughing, wheezing, and fast or noisy breath sounds, but these symptoms can vary from person to person.

What respiratory condition's disease process includes hyper secreation of mucus, dysfunctional cilia, limited air flow, and pulmonary hypertension?

a. asthma

b. restrictive lung disease

c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

d. cardiovascular disease (CVD)

Answer: c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

The respiratory condition's disease process that includes hyper secretion of mucus, dysfunctional cilia, limited air flow, and pulmonary hypertension is COPD. This is a preventable and treatable disease, but can do damage that is irreversible.

Factors such as inadequate warm-up, sudden movements, and rapid increase in exercise intensity or duration can lead to what problem in older adults?

a. muscle strains

b. orthopedic injury

c. fatigue

d. muscular cramping

Answer: b. orthopedic injury

Factors such as inadequate warm-up, sudden movements, and rapid increase in exercise intensity or duration can lead to orthopedic injury in older adults. For this reason, adequate care should be taken when working with this older population.

Regular use of what type of training has a positive impact on older adults by preserving muscle mass and helping to stave off obesity by slowing the decline of metabolism?

a. resistance training

b. cardiovascular training

c. balance training

d. stability training

Answer: a. resistance training

Regular resistance training has a positive impact on older adults by preserving muscle mass and helping to stave off obesity by slowing the decline of metabolism. Additionally, resistance training can slow the effects of sarcopenia, which is often comorbid with obesity in older adults.

Data has shown that older adults who maintain a regular fitness regimen benefit in what way immunologically?

a. increased infectious disease incidence

b. decreased recurrence of autoimmune disorders

c. decreased compromise to immune function

d. decreased nutritional impact on immune decline with age

Answer: c. decreased compromise to immune function

Data has shown that older adults who maintain a regular fitness regimen benefit immunologically by showing a decreased compromise to immune function as aging progresses. It is not known yet how this occurs, but that non- sedentary adults show much better immune function.

What frequency recommendations are in place for training older adults who have been sedentary or are deconditioned?

a. frequency should be limited to 2-3 times a week for more intense types of exercise

b. frequency can be 5-7 times a week with lower duration and intensity exercises

c. frequency is relative to the duration and intensity of exercise and should continually fluctuate accordingly

Answer: b. frequency can be 5-7 times a week with lower duration and intensity exercises

What age group of fitness clients best benefits from a program that specifically includes strength and balance training?

a. children

b. adolescents

c. adults

d. older adults

Answer: d. older adults

Older adults best benefit from a program that includes strength and balance training. The increased propensity towards falls in older age may cause some older adults to have a fear of falling. Helping them to maintain their strength and balance can help to calm these fears emotionally and also physically improve their chances of not having a fall or not becoming injured if a fall does occur.

Which of the following accurately describes a unique physiological response of children to exercise?

a. children show much quicker recovery of heart rate and blood pressure after exercise than adults

b. anaerobic capacity is higher in children than adults due to lower concentration of muscle glycogen

c. children have a higher breathing rate than adults with greater ventilatory volume during exercise

d. children show a higher cardiac output than adults at a given oxygen consumption

Answer: a. children show much quicker recovery of heart rate and blood pressure after exercise than adults

One unique physiological response of children to exercise is that children show much quicker recovery of heart rate and blood pressure after exercise than adults. Otherwise, anaerobic capacity is lower in children, ventilatory volume is less than adults, and cardiac output is slightly less in children than adults.

What common chronic condition in children presents with a cough, tightness of the chest, wheezing, chest pain, and breathlessness associated with physical activity?

a. congenital heart defects

b. obesity and overall lack of fitness

c. allergies

d. exercise induced asthma

Answer: d. exercise induced asthma

Exercise induced asthma is a common chronic condition in children that presents with a cough, tightness of the chest, wheezing, chest pain, and breathlessness associated with physical activity. This condition can often be pharmacologically controlled so that affected children can continue to participate in physical fitness activities.