Archive for October 2018

Which of the following is also known as the Trunk Flexion Test?

Which of the following is also known as the Trunk Flexion Test?


a. sit-and-reach test

b. curl-up test for muscular endurance

c. sit-up test for muscular endurance

d. any test that requires clients to touch their toes


Answer: a. sit-and-reach test

Which of the following is a result of chronic aerobic training?

Which of the following is a result of chronic aerobic training?


a. increased lipid production

b. decreased plasma triglyceride levels

c. decreased high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels

d. increased low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels


Answer: b. decreased plasma triglyceride levels

Type II muscle fibers:

Type II muscle fibers:


a. have a high capacity to generate energy through the electron transport system

b. have a high capacity to generate energy from fat

c. are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers

d. have high endurance capabilities


Answer: c. are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers

What change may occur between heart rate and blood pressure as a result of chronic exercise?

What change may occur between heart rate and blood pressure as a result of chronic exercise?


a. resting heart rate and resting blood pressure are reduced

b. resting heart rate reduces, but resting blood pressure stays the same

c. maximal heart rate increases but maximal blood pressure stays the same

d. resting heart rate and resting blood pressure stay the same, but maximal heart rate and maximal blood pressure are reduced



Answer: a. resting heart rate and resting blood pressure are reduced

Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?

Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?


a. both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload

b. systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases

c. systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or decreases slightly

d. systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, the increase in proportion to the increase in intensity


Answer: c. systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or decreases slightly

From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the?

From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the?


a. bicep brachii and latisimus dorsi

b. posterior deltoid

c. anterior deltoid and triceps brachii

d. middle deltoid


Answer: d. middle deltoid

What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?

What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?


a. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx

b. coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical

c. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral

d. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx


Answer: d. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx

A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1 kg) barbell. Even though he exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the following describes the muscle action during the extension?

A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1 kg) barbell. Even though he exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the following describes the muscle action during the extension?


a. isotonic concentric

b. isotonic eccentric

c. isokinetic concentric

d. isokinetic eccentric


Answer: b. isotonic eccentric

What is the order of stretching techniques from lowest risk of injury to highest risk of injury?

What is the order of stretching techniques from lowest risk of injury to highest risk of injury?


a. ballistic; slow static; proprioceptive; neuromuscular facilitation

b. slow static; ballistic; proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

c. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation; ballistic; slow satic

d. slow static; proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation; ballistic


Answer: d. slow static; proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation; ballistic

As the intensity of the dynamic exercise increases, which of the following sets of responses occurs?

As the intensity of the dynamic exercise increases, which of the following sets of responses occurs?


a. heart rate, systolic blood pressure, and diastolic blood pressure increase

b. heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, diastolic pressure remains unchanged

c. heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, stroke volume and cardiac output remain the same

d. stroke volume decreases, heart rate and cardiac output increase


Answer: b. heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, diastolic pressure remains unchanged

Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity?

Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity?


a. the muscles will be able to extract more oxygen from the blood

b. total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high-intensity exercise

c. the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood will increase

d. the amount of air the lungs can take in will increase because of increases in the rate and depth of breathing


Answer: b. total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high-intensity exercise

What muscles extends the forearm?

What muscles extends the forearm?


a. supinator teres

b. pronator teres

c. biceps brachii

d. triceps brachii


Answer: d. triceps brachii

What is the current path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart?

What is the current path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart?


a. left ventricle; left atrium; right atrium; right ventricle

b. right ventricle; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle

c. left atrium; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle

d. right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left atrium


Answer: d. right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left ventricle

What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration?

What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration?


a. external intercostals

b. pectoralis minor

c. sternocleidomastoid

d. internal intercostals


Answer: d. internal intercostals

Which of the following occurs when walking or running up an incline?

Which of the following occurs when walking or running up an incline?


a. greater flexibility of the soleus

b. lesser force of action from the gluteus maximus

c. lesser force of action of the knee extensors

d. lesser flexibility of the plantar flexors


Answer: a. greater flexibility of the soleus

What is the function of the tricuspid valve?

What is the function of the tricuspid valve?


a. it acts as a pacemaker

b. to pump blood through the heart

c. prevents backflow of blood to the left atrium

d. prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium


Answer: d. prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium

What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive individual?

What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive individual?


a. both systolic and diastolic pressures will increase

b. both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease

c. systolic will increase, while diastolic will remain unchanged

d. systolic will decrease, while diastolic will remain unchanged.


Answer: b. both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease


Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is mot likely going to lead to overtraining?

Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is mot likely going to lead to overtraining?


a. one intensive day followed by three easy days.

b. one long day followed by three shorter duration days

c. two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day.

d. a medium intensive day followed by two easy days.


Answer: c. two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day


A trainer should have basic knowledge of potential injuries or complications to which of the following?

A trainer should have basic knowledge of potential injuries or complications to which of the following?


a. cardiovascular and pulmonary complications

b. musculoskeletal injuries

c. metabolic complications

d. all of these

e. none of these


Answer: d. all of these

All of these are correct because a trainer should have basic understanding of any major complication that could arise from exercising in order to minimize risk and ensure client safety. Additionally, all of a client's health history should be discussed during the screening process.

Which population is the most likely to benefit from creating supplementation?

Which population is the most likely to benefit from creating supplementation?


a. females

b. sedentary individuals

c. athletes

d. elderly individuals

e. youth


Answer: c. athletes

Athletes is correct because this population often requires high levels of strength and muscle mass. Creating supplementation can enhance effort for short, high-intensity activities such as weightlifting.

Which of the following vitamins does the body have a limited storage for?

Which of the following vitamins does the body have a limited storage for?


a. vitamin A

b. vitamin C

c. vitamin D

d. vitamin E

e. vitamin K


Answer: b. vitamin C

Vitamin C is correct because it is a water soluble vitamin, which have limited storage capacities because they are not delivered with fats or oils. Other examples of water soluble vitamins are the B vitamins. These vitamins are typically associated with carbohydrate foods, such as fresh fruits, breads, cereals, and vegetables.

Which of the following is not appropriate for a Health and Fitness Professional to perform during an assessment?

Which of the following is not appropriate for a Health and Fitness Professional to perform during an assessment?


a. screen for exercise limitations

b. identify potential risk factors

c. refer clients to qualified medical practitioner

d. diagnose a medical condition

e. obtain exercise guidelines from qualified medical practitioner


Answer: d. diagnose a medical condition

Diagnose a medical condition is correct because fitness assessments provide information and are a method of communication between the personal trainer and client in order to ensure that the client's health and well-being are monitored and that the fitness program's goals are monitored and evaluated. Assessments are not designed to diagnose health or medical conditions but are an observation of a client's structure and functional status.

Exposing a client to the risks of unhealthy eating and a sedentary lifestyle is most effective for those in which stage of change?

Exposing a client to the risks of unhealthy eating and a sedentary lifestyle is most effective for those in which stage of change?


a. pre-contemplation

b. preparation

c. action

d. maintenance

e. contemplation


Answer: a. pre-contemplation.

Pre-contemplation is correct because this group is unaware of the benefits of healthy nutrition and exercise. Those in the pre-contemplation stage are not often seen by personal trainers, and for this group education is the best form of intervention. This information should be basic, easy to understand, and supportive.

Preparation is incorrect because this group understands the benefits of the risks of unhealthy eating and a sedentary lifestyle.

Action is incorrect because this group is taking advantage of the benefits of eating healthy and exercising.

Maintenance is incorrect because this group is continually reaping the benefits of healthy and active living.

Contemplation is incorrect because this group has been educated on the risks of unhealthy eating and a sedentary lifestyle, though they have not yet made a plan to change.

When designing a flexibility training session, how much volume (in time) should be included per muscle group?

When designing a flexibility training session, how much volume (in time) should be included per muscle group?


a. 30 seconds

b. 60 seconds

c. 90 seconds

d. 120 seconds

e. none to these


Answer: b. 60 seconds

60 seconds is correct because for the best results, according to research, a total of 60 seconds per muscle group within a flexibility session is recommended. This can be accomplished by performing multiple stretches for the same muscle group or by performing the same stretch for multiple sets.

At which diastolic blood pressure should a personal trainer be concerned about hypertension in a client and refer them to a physician as they may be "pre-hypertensive?"

At which diastolic blood pressure should a personal trainer be concerned about hypertension in a client and refer them to a physician as they may be "pre-hypertensive?"


a. less than 80 mmHg

b. greater than 120 mmHg

c. between 80 and 89 mmHg

d. between 70 and 79 mmHg

e. greater than 90 mmHg


Answer: c. between 80 and 89 mmHg

Between 80 and 89 mmHg is correct because a normal diastolic blood pressure is under 80 mmHg, a pre-hypertensive blood pressure is between 80 and 89 mmHg, and a hypertensive blood pressure is 90 mmHg or greater. Diastolic blood pressure is the pressure within the arterial blood vessels when the heart is resting and filling with blood. It is measured during a blood measure test as the point at which the sound of the pulse fades away through the stethoscope.

As a health and fitness professional, what aspect of medical advice is under the scope of practice?

As a health and fitness professional, what aspect of medical advice is under the scope of practice?


a. give clients advice

b. provide clients with treatments for diseases based on advice

c. alter advice based on a client's progress

d. aid clients in following advice

e. diagnose conditions based on advice


Answer: d. aid clients in following advice

Aid clients in following advice is correct because under no circumstances are Health and Fitness Professionals to give, interpret, or alter medical advice or provide treatment other than the exercise prescription based on that advice. As health and fitness professionals, our job is to aid our clients in following any medical advice and to refer clients for medical advice.

A health and fitness professional cannot be involved in which of the following nutrition topics with their clients?

A health and fitness professional cannot be involved in which of the following nutrition topics with their clients?


a. discussing food preparation methods

b. providing specific meal plans

c. pointing out the nutrients contained in certain food

d. educating about the importance of hydration status

e. suggesting healthy snacks


Answer: b. providing specific meal plans.

Providing specific meal plans is correct because it is out of the scope of practice for a personal trainer. It is important that personal trainers understand the concepts of nutrition and be able to convey that information to their clients. However, only licensed health care professionals, like Registered Dietitians, can provide individual nutritional assessments, meal plans, and recommendations for nutritional therapy.

How long should you wait before reading the calipers in a skinfold measurement assessment after pinching them on the skin?

How long should you wait before reading the calipers in a skinfold measurement assessment after pinching them on the skin?


a. 1 to 2 seconds

b. 5 seconds

c. 30 seconds

d. 1 minute

e. should be read immediately


Answer: a. 1 to 2 seconds

1 to 2 Seconds is correct because this allow the pinnched skin to settle, which will provide a more accurate reading. Skinfold measurements are used to determine body composition. When performed by a skilled technician, this method is very accurate.

Which of the following is not a mineral?

Which of the following is not a mineral?


a. calcium

b. biotin

c. iron

d. zinc

e. sodium


Answer: b. biotin

Biotin is correct because this is a vitamin (vitamin B7). Minerals are inorganic substances that help with several functions within the body. These functions include controlling water balance, acid-base balance, and energy reactions.

Integrity, innovation, and teamwork are examples of what aspect of the business plan?

Integrity, innovation, and teamwork are examples of what aspect of the business plan?


 a. mission statement

 b. business values

 c. business vision

 d. description of business services

 e. none of these
Answer: b. business values

 Business values is correct because these are the behavior and customer service philosophy that will dictate the actions of the business. To manage a business effectively, the personal trainer must work from a business plan, which should include the creating of a business vision, mission statement, business values, a brief description of the business services, the choice of a business model, and the listing of operational policies

 Mission statement is incorrect because this is a sentence or two that describes what the goal of the business is.

 Business vision is incorrect because this is an overall statement of how the business will operate.

 Description of business services is incorrect because this is a detailed list of statements of how the business will operate.

An emergency preparedness policies and procedures does not need to include which of the following aspects?

An emergency preparedness policies and procedures does not need to include which of the following aspects?


a. CPR and AED certifications

b. regular maintenance of first aid equipment

c. a manual for writing injury prevention exercise programs

d. 911 calling instructions

e. emergency escape routes


Answer: c. a manual for writing injury prevention exercise programs.

A manual for writing a injury prevention exercise programs is correct because injury prevention is not an emergency situation. These policies and procedures should be developed by the ownership and management of the personal training business and shared with every employee or independent contractor. Documentation of these is also imperative.

Which of the following is not a personal barrier to exercise?

Which of the following is not a personal barrier to exercise?


a. lack of time

b. extrinsic motivation

c. bad weather

d. injury

e. exercise knowledge


Answer: c. bad weather

Bad weather is correct because this is an environmental barrier. Personal barriers are individual-level barriers that may be internal or behavioral. Personal, environmental, and social barriers must be identified and overcome to ensure exercise adherence of a client.

How many different classes of nutrients are available for consumption to aid in human function?

How many different classes of nutrients are available for consumption to aid in human function?


a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 6

e. 10


Answer: d. 6

Six is correct because the classes of nutrients include:
1: Carbohydrates
2: Protein
3: Fat
4: Vitamins
5: Minerals
6: Water
All of these play a vital role in the health and well-being of an individual and each has an amount that should be consumed to achieve this.

In order to restore muscle glycogen and fluid levels after exercise, what nutrient must be consumed in addition to water after exercise?

In order to restore muscle glycogen and fluid levels after exercise, what nutrient must be consumed in addition to water after exercise?


a. protein

b. fat

c. vitamin D

d. sodium

e. carbohydrate


Answer: e. carbohydrate

Carbohydrate is correct because it is quickly digested and absorbed to replaced depleted glycogen stores. Consuming 1.5 grams of carbohydrate per kg of body weight is recommended within 30 minutes of completing exercise to maximize glycogen replenishment.

What is the main purpose of spotting an exercise

What is the main purpose of spotting an exercise


a. to increase the amount of weight that can be lifted?

b. to improve the relationship between personal trainer and client

c. to increase the number of repetitions that can be performed

d. to prevent injury

e. to make the client look good


Answer: d. to prevent injury

Prevent injury is the correct answer because this ensures that the lifter is assisted if needed and the set can be stopped if form breaks down. A good personal trainer, who is strong enough to assist any lifter, knows how to position himself to effectively spot every exercise.

What business model involves a personal trainer operating his own business within a larger fitness facility?

What business model involves a personal trainer operating his own business within a larger fitness facility?


a. sole proprietor

b. facility owner

c. facility employee

d. independent contractor

e. limited liability company


Answer: d. independent contractor

Independent contractor is correct because in this scenario the trainer is in charge of obtaining their own clients and setting their own hours, but the client pays the larger business, which then pays the personal trainer a percentage. An independent contractor typically works within, but not for, a larger health club or commercial fitness facility.

Sole proprietor is incorrect because this trainer works alone, for themselves.

Facility owner is incorrect because this individual owns the gym where the trainers work.

Facility employee is incorrect because this individual trains the facility's clients and is paid a standard wage.

Limited liability company is incorrect because this is the larger corporation, not the trainer themselves.

What is the number of training days that must occur per week for strength to be maintained, assuming that load is maintained?

What is the number of training days that must occur per week for strength to be maintained, assuming that load is maintained?


a. two

b. one

c. three

d. four

e. none of these


Answer: b. one

One is correct because as long as the training intensity ore resistance lifted is maintained at the current level, only one training session per week is needed to maintain previous strength levels. Of course, this is muscle specific; therefore, all muscles must be trained in the weekly session.

Which of the following is the most appropriate rest period between sets during plyometric training for a client looking to improve power?

Which of the following is the most appropriate rest period between sets during plyometric training for a client looking to improve power?


a. 10 seconds

b. 30 seconds

c. 60 seconds

d. 5 minutes

e. 8 minutes


Answer: c. 60 seconds

60 seconds is correct because when performing plyometric training to improve speed and power, complete rest is desired. As the ATP-PC energy system was the dominant energy system, approximately 60-90 seconds would be an appropriate rest time between plyometric sets.

10 seconds is incorrect because this would not allow the ATP-PC energy system to recover.

30 seconds is incorrect because this length of time is too short to allow for recovery of the ATP-PC energy system.

5 minutes is incorrect because this length of time is much longer than what is needed for full recovery of short bursts of activity.

8 minutes is incorrect because this length of time is well beyond what is needed to recover the ATP-PC energy system.

When can a trainer discuss their client's private information publicly

When can a trainer discuss their client's private information publicly


a. only when given consent

b. never

c. anytime the client fails to reach a goal

d. only when the client's family is present

e. only if the client is present


Answer: a. only when given consent

Only when given consent is correct because this information is private and can involve a claim if shared without consent. A personal trainer should never share any private information about their client. However, a client can give written consent to disclose information publicly should the need arise.

Never is incorrect because a client can give written consent if the need arises.

Anytime the client fails to reach a goal is incorrect because this information is private.

Only when the client's family is present is incorrect because the private information belongs only to the client and cannot be shared even with their family.

Only if the client is present is incorrect because private information can only be shared with consent, even when the client is present.

Which of the following would be an incorrect technique for the leg extension exercise?

Which of the following would be an incorrect technique for the leg extension exercise?


a. allow the buttocks to leave the seat during the downward movement phase

b. squeeze the quadriceps muscles at the top of the movement

c. keep the thighs, lower legs, and feet parallel to one another

d. lower the pad until the knees are at a 90° angle

e. keep the back flat against the seat throughout the movement


Answer: a. allow the buttocks to leave the seat during the downward movement phase

Allow the buttocks to leave the seat during the downward movement phase is incorrect because not ensuring the five points of contact during any movement that involves a bench or seat is an indication of incorrect technique. The leg extension exercise is designed to increase the size and strength of the quadriceps muscles.

The force of blood acting on the walls of arteries and veins is known as which of the following?

The force of blood acting on the walls of arteries and veins is known as which of the following?


a. heart rate

b. maximum heart rate

c. blood pressure

d. VO2 Max

e. stroke volume


Answer: c. blood pressure

Blood pressure is correct because this is the measurement of the force of blood against artery and vein walls. It's typically expressed in millimeters by mercury (mmHg).

Heart rate is incorrect because this is a measure of the number of times the heart contracts per minute.

Maximum heart rate is incorrect because this is the maximum number of times a heart can contract per minute.

VO2 Max is incorrect because this is the body's maximal ability to provide energy via the aerobic pathway.

Stroke volume is incorrect because this is the amount (not force) of blood that the heart can pump out with each beat.

The guidelines for which warm-up activity include carryout out 5 to 10 repetitions for each movement, progressively increase the ROM on each repetition, increased the speed of motion on subsequent sets, and contracting the muscles while moving through the ROM.

The guidelines for which warm-up activity include carryout out 5 to 10 repetitions for each movement, progressively increase the ROM on each repetition, increased the speed of motion on subsequent sets, and contracting the muscles while moving through the ROM.


a. stating stretching

b. dynamic stretching

c. PNF stretching

d. free weight exercises

e. ballistic stretches


Answer: b. dynamic stretching

Dynamic stretching is correct because this involves 5-10 repetitions of increased range of motion. There are also precautions for dynamic stretching. One should move progressively through the ROM, move deliberately but avoid bouncing and should not sacrifice good technique for additional range of motion.

Static stretching is incorrect because these stretches are held for time.

PNF stretching is incorrect because these do not involve increased range of motion or speed throughout the set.

Ballistic stretches is incorrect because these stretches begin with fast movements.

What is a benefit of fat loss?

What is a benefit of fat loss?


a. efficiency of cardiorespiratory system

b. decreased synergistic dominance

c. greater endurance

d. increased lean muscle tissue burns more calories even when not training


Answer: d. increased lean muscle tissue burns more calories even when not training

Increased lean muscle tissue burns more calories even when not training is a benefit of fat loss. The other answer choices are features of fat loss.

Which of the following is not a physiological consideration when training a pregnant client?

Which of the following is not a physiological consideration when training a pregnant client?


a. increased energy levels

b. posture affects blood-flow differently

c. increased metabolic demand

d. decreased oxygen capacity


Answer: a. increased energy levels

Increased energy levels is not a physiological consideration when training a pregnant client, in fact, it is more likely to be the opposite. Many women find the first two trimesters, especially, to be very tiring period as their body adapts and adjust to the new demands place upon it.

What is a specific consideration when training a person with hypertension?

What is a specific consideration when training a person with hypertension?


a. they may faint with overexertion

b. they cannot bend over completely

c. they are unlikely to have comorbidities

d. medications that affect the heart rate response to exercise


Answer: d. medications that affect the heart rate response to exercise

A specific consideration when training a person with hypertension is the likelihood that they take medications that affect the heart rate response to exercise. This invalidates the ability to use equation of heart rate indications to predict the expected exercise heart rate.

Why is it important to pay close attention to carbohydrate intake or insulin use during training with diabetic clients?

Why is it important to pay close attention to carbohydrate intake or insulin use during training with diabetic clients?


a. diabetics have decreased circulation

b. increased hydration may be necessary

c. to reduce the risk of hypoglycemic incidents

d. frequently there are other medical concerns concurrently that may need attention


Answer: c. to reduce the risk of hypoglycemic incidents

It is important to pay close attention to carbohydrate intake or insulin use during training with diabetic clients in order to reduce the risk of hypoglycemic incidents. The other factors may be true, but do not have to do with carbohydrate intake.

What are some special conditions to be considered specifically with regard to seniors as fitness clients?

What are some special conditions to be considered specifically with regard to seniors as fitness clients?


a. degeneration limiting functional ability, coordination, bone mineral density and connective tissue elasticity

b. sweat rate, tendency to fatigue from short periods of high intensity and loses tolerance for weather extremes

c. diminished ability to perform functionally, de-conditioned core musculature and poor balance

d. decreased circulation to distal limb and increased sensitivity to overuse of energy stores


Answer: a. degeneration limiting functional ability, coordination, bone mineral density and connective tissue elasticity

Degeneration limiting functional ability, coordination, bone mineral density and connective tissue elasticity are some special conditions to be considered specifically with regard to seniors as fitness clients. The other factors apply to other special populations.

Which of the following is not a consideration regarding fitness training for special populations of people?

Which of the following is not a consideration regarding fitness training for special populations of people?


a. medications and how they affect physiological responses such as heart rate, blood pressure, etc.

b. obesity and ability to perform with proper form due to high level of de-conditioning

c. schedule-time of day when the workout will be conducted

d. age and forms of age-related conditions affecting mobility, flexibility and strength


Answer: c. schedule-time of day when the workout will be conducted

The schedule is unimportant with regard to the needs of special populations. All the factors mentioned are very important because they all have an impact on the client's ability to safely perform.

Which of the following is not a physiological difference in regards to fitness training between adults and adolescents or children?

Which of the following is not a physiological difference in regards to fitness training between adults and adolescents or children?


a. body fat

b. oxygen uptake

c. submaximal oxygen demand

d. sweating rate


Answer: a. body fat

Body fat has no impact on fitness training as far as its difference between adults and children or adolescent. Children are more likely to overheat, become fatigued and are less able to perform long time period of high intensity.

What chronic condition can initiate the elevation of insulin levels, which converts excess blood sugar to glyco proteins and fatty acids?

What chronic condition can initiate the elevation of insulin levels, which converts excess blood sugar to glyco proteins and fatty acids?


a. overeating

b. fatigue

c. hyperglycemia

d. hypoglycemia


Answer: c. hyperglycemia

Hyperglycemia when chronic, can initiate the elevation of insulin levels, which converts excess blood sugar to glyco proteins and fatty acids.

How is the Recommended Dietary Allowance for protein figured out based on an average client's body weight?

How is the Recommended Dietary Allowance for protein figured out based on an average client's body weight?


a. 0.8g per kg per day (0.8g/kg)

b. 0.2g per kg per day (0.2g/kg)

c. 1.5g per kg per day (1.5g/kg)

d. subtract age from 222 and divide by 85%


Answer: a. 0.8g per kg per day (0.8g/kg)

The Recommended Dietary Allowance for protein can be figured out by taking an average client's body weight (in kg) and multiplying the body weight by 0.8. This results in the amount of grams (g) of protein that is needed based on that individuals' weight.

Which of the following is not an impairment that can result from dehydration?

Which of the following is not an impairment that can result from dehydration?


a. increased blood pressure

b. decreased blood flow to skin

c. higher perceive rate of exertion

d. increased use of muscle glycogen


Answer: a. increased blood pressure

Increased blood pressure is not an impairment that can result from dehydration. Decreased blood pressure would more likely result due to the similar decrease in blood volume, which in turn affects the ability to sweat and cool the body.

When the fitness goal is to alter body composition, how should meals and nutrient intake be dispersed?

When the fitness goal is to alter body composition, how should meals and nutrient intake be dispersed?


a. eat three large meals daily at evenly dispersed time intervals

b. distribute protein, calories and fat throughout the day and at each meal

c. eat as few as 1200 calories in order to deprive the body of excess energy sources

d. eat 6 large meals daily to maximize the increased metabolic response from exercise


Answer: b. distribute protein, calories and fat throughout the day and at each meal

When the fitness goal is to alter body composition, protein, calorie and fat intake should be distributed throughout the day and at each meal. A caloric deficit is needed, but also the dispersion of food is important to avoid periods of extreme hunger or spikes in blood sugar.

Why is it important to consult with a healthcare provider regarding supplementation?

Why is it important to consult with a healthcare provider regarding supplementation?


a. full disclosure is always necessary for the sake of accurate medical assessment

b. it is important to have an open and factual communication with healthcare providers

c. some supplements can interfere with prescribed medication or can complicate other medical issues

d. often they can give advise about which brands make the best quality product


Answer: c. some supplements can interfere with prescribed medication or can complicate other medical issues

It is important to consult with a healthcare provider regarding supplementation because some supplements can interfere with prescribed medication or can complicate other medical issues. Also, if supplementation is excessive, symptoms of this excess can mimic or mask symptoms of medical conditions.

Which of the following types of people is not considered a likely candidate for supplementation?

Which of the following types of people is not considered a likely candidate for supplementation?


a. a competitive power lifter

b. someone with a digestive disorder

c. breast-feeding mother

d. a person who is careful about dietary intake values


Answer: d. a person who is careful about dietary intake values

A person who is careful about dietary intake values is not considered a likely candidate for supplementation. The other answers indicate different types of people likely to use supplements due to excessive, deteriorated or otherwise depleted nutrition intake or availability.

What is one of the health benefits of proper hydration with water during exercise?

What is one of the health benefits of proper hydration with water during exercise?


a. decreases core body temperature

b. increases core body temperature

c. decrease blood flow to skin

d. results in a bloated feeling


Answer: a. decreases core body temperature

One of the health benefits of proper hydration with water during exercise is a decrease in overall core temperature. This works any time not just during exercise. Water also increases blood circulation, allowing rapid cooling and flushing of excess sodium or toxins from the system.

Lipids, or fats, have all of the health benefits listed blow except which?

Lipids, or fats, have all of the health benefits listed blow except which?


a. carry fat-soluble vitamins

b. allow the stomach to feel full longer following meals

c. aids in the absorption of calcium from vitamin D

d. provide reduced amount of usable energy


Answer: d. provide reduced amount of usable energy

Lipids, or fats, have all of the aforementioned health benefits except they do not reduce energy, rather, they provide an energy source. In fact, the energy in fat is the most concentrated form of dietary energy.

Which of the following is considered to be healthy form of fat in the diet?

Which of the following is considered to be healthy form of fat in the diet?


a. saturated

b. hydrogenated

c. monounsaturated

d. trans-saturated



Answer: c. monounsaturated

Monounsaturated is considered to be a healthy form of fat in the diet. Unsaturated fats are the ones found in Omega-3 fatty acids of fish oil and salmon along with those in olive or canola oil, and are considered to have favorable health impacts.

What is the basic functional unit of a protein?

What is the basic functional unit of a protein?


a. amino acid

b. monosaccharide

c. polypeptide

d. whey


Answer: a. amino acid

The amino acid is the basic functional unit of a protein. The body uses 20 amino acids in protein synthesis and they are arranged in varying sequences to form the different proteins.

How does the body acquire non-essential amino acids?

How does the body acquire non-essential amino acids?


a. the body can manufacture them

b. dietary or supplemental sources

c. only via supplementation

d. there is no need for non-essential amino acids


Answer: a. the body can manufacture them

The body acquires non-essential amino acids by manufacturing them from within using nitrogen and fragments of carbohydrates. These are essential in the sense that the body does need them, but can produce them internally without seeking them from external sources.

Which amino acids are considered to be essential amino acids?

Which amino acids are considered to be essential amino acids?


a. those that cannot be derived from foods

b. those that cannot be manufactured by the body at all or in sufficient quantity

c. those that are necessary to the function of protein production

d. those that are more rare than non-essential amino acids


Answer: b. those that cannot be manufactured by the body at all or in sufficient quantity

The amino acids that are considered to be essential amino acids are those that cannot be manufactured by the body at all or in sufficient quantity and therefore must be acquired through dietary sources, such as food or supplementation.

Which of the following is not a function of protein within the body?

Which of the following is not a function of protein within the body?


a. build and repair tissues and structures

b. synthesis of hormones and enzymes

c. assists in body temperature reduction

d. energy


Answer: c. assists in body temperature reduction

Protein does not assist in body temperature reduction. It does serve the other functions listed. It is a basic necessary dietary component, used for different types of synthesis and repair, and when calorie or carbohydrate levels are insufficient, it will be used as energy.

What specific benefits are reaped from the rest period of training?

What specific benefits are reaped from the rest period of training?


a. allows the body to use the energy within the fat cells, thus reducing overall body fat

b. promotes a decrease in performance and increases compensation

c. recuperation-energy levels can recover, restoration of ATP and CP stores

d. decrease in body temperature and neuromuscular activity


Answer: c. recuperation-energy levels can recover, restoration of ATP and CP stores

Some specific benefits are reaped from the rest period of training are the recovery of energy levels and restoration of ATP and CP. Rest reduces fatigue, as well, and does decrease the body temperature, but that is not a benefit desired during the process of activity, but after completion.

What could result from training too quickly to achieve muscle strength and hypertrophy?

What could result from training too quickly to achieve muscle strength and hypertrophy?


a. muscles growing larger at different paces resulting in imbalances

b. increased risk of injury due to necessary tissues developing at differing rates

c. increased adaptability due to varying stressors

d. a fine and aesthetically desirable physique


Answer: b. increases risk of injury due to necessary tissues developing at differing rates

Increased risk of injury due to necessary tissues developing at differing rates can result from training too quickly to achieve muscle strength and hypertrophy. Different tissues develop and adapt at different rates. For example, connective tissues recover slower than muscles, and pushing training too quickly forward can result in injuries.

What type of muscle fibers make up the core musculature and what type of contractions best suit these muscles?

What type of muscle fibers make up the core musculature and what type of contractions best suit these muscles?


a. slow twitch, type II muscle fibers; quick short-term contractions

b. slow twitch, type I muscle fibers; longer sustained contractions

c. fast twitch, type I muscle fibers; quick short-term contractions

d. fast twitch, type II muscle fibers; longer sustained contractions


Answer: b. slow twitch, type I muscle fibers; longer sustained contractions

Slow twitch, type I muscle fibers make up the core musculature and longer sustained contractions best suit these muscles. Exercises that fit this description, such as the prone iso-ab, (more commonly known as the plank), maintain longer contractions, and are more beneficial to the core musculature.

What is one very simple and important way to help increase core stabilization while performing core strengthening exercises?

What is one very simple and important way to help increase core stabilization while performing core strengthening exercises?


a. placing hands under the buttocks to straighten the lumbar spine

b. performing core exercises on a reverse incline bench

c. pressing down into the floor while arms are beside the torso during core exercises

d. maintaining neutral cervical spine position


Answer: d. maintaining neutral cervical spine position

Maintaining neutral cervical spine position is one very simple and important way to help increase core stabilization while performing core strengthening exercises. The other answer choices are more fitness urban legends than fact and can actually be counterproductive to workout success.

People complaining of what type of pain likely have weak transversus abdominis, pelvic floor muscles and deep erector spinae?

People complaining of what type of pain likely have weak transversus abdominis, pelvic floor muscles and deep erector spinae?


a. low back pain

b. knee pain

c. aching necks resulting in chronic headache

d. mid upper back tightness



Answer: a. low back pain

People complaining of low back pain likely have weak transversus abdomins, pelvic floor muscles and deep erector spinae. These are essential muscles of the core stabilization system and if core strengthening exercises are performed while this system is still weak, there can be resulting compressive forces and increased pressure on discs of the lumbar spine.

Which description below indicates CORRECT form and function while using exercise equipment?

Which description below indicates CORRECT form and function while using exercise equipment?


a. holding the support bars on the stair master for better balance

b. leaning forward while walking on the treadmill with a very high level of incline for better calorie burn

c. running the treadmill at as fast a rate as possible for better intensity

d. sitting upright with straight shoulders on the stationary bike


Answer: d. sitting upright with straight shoulders on the stationary bike

Sitting upright with straight shoulders on the stationary bike indicates correct form and function while using this piece of exercise equipment. The other answers indicate poor posture which will likely result in continued or worsened postural imbalances.

What is it called when the body adapts to increasing levels of stress placed upon it to produce a higher level of progression toward fitness goals?

What is it called when the body adapts to increasing levels of stress placed upon it to produce a higher level of progression toward fitness goals?


a. general adaptation syndrome

b. principle of specificity

c. physical adaptation

d. adaptive goal setting


Answer: a. general adaptation syndrome

When the body adapts to increasing levels of stress placed upon it to produce a higher level of progression toward fitness goals is called general adaption syndrome. This is hwy training programs should vary on a regular basis, in order to continually challenge the client's physical abilities.

What is the concept called that dictates that fat loss can only occur if the intake of calories (energy) is less than the amount of calories (energy) burned?

What is the concept called that dictates that fat loss can only occur if the intake of calories (energy) is less than the amount of calories (energy) burned?


a. the fat burning zone

b. negative calorimetry

c. law of thermodynamics

d. law of energy consumption


Answer: c. law of thermodynamics

The law of thermodynamics is the concept that dictates that fat loss can only occur if the intake of calories (energy) is less than the amount of calories (energy) burned. There is no scientific fat burning zone, as is commonly believed, and weight can only be lost if the energy burned by the body's work is less than what is ingested calorically through food and drink.

What activity can help minimize waste by-products, reduce muscle soreness and allow the body to respond to lower levels of physical demand?

What activity can help minimize waste by-products, reduce muscle soreness and allow the body to respond to lower levels of physical demand?


a. warm-up

b. cool-down

c. dynamic stretching

d. inadequate hydration


Answer: b. cool-down

A proper cool-down can help minimize waste by-products, reduce muscle soreness and allow the body to respond to lower levels of physical demand. It can help the muscles relax and return to their original length from before the workout.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of a pre-workout warm-up?

Which of the following is NOT an effect of a pre-workout warm-up?


a. increased blood flow to muscle tissues

b. increased metabolic rate

c. decreased metabolic rate

d. increased oxygen exchange


Answer: c. decreased metabolic rate

Decreased metabolic rate is NOT an effect of a pre-workout warm-up. All the other answer choices are effects of warm-ups, and prepare the body for physical activity.

What are some benefits of a pre-workout warm-up?

What are some benefits of a pre-workout warm-up?


a. increased heart rate, respiration, and likelihood for injury due to over-stretching

b. increased heart rate, respiration, tissue temperature

c. increased psychological preparation for exercise and chance of overexertion

d. increased respiration and decreased blood pressure


Answer: b. increased heart rate, respiration, tissue temperature

Some benefits of a pre-workout warm-up are increased heart rate, respiration, and tissue temperature. These effects serve to prepare the whole body for the effects of the impending intense exertion to be experienced.

What type of activity places a stress on the cardiorespiratory system?

What type of activity places a stress on the cardiorespiratory system?


a. aerobic training

b. anaerobic training

c. integrated cardiorespiratory training

d. integrated respiratory challenge


Answer: c. integrated cardiorespiratory training

The activity that places a stress on the cardiorespiratory system is called integrated cardiorespiratory training. Almost any form of exercise can be used as cardiorespiratory training if it challenges the respiratory system.

What is the process that results from the Golgi tendon organs inhibiting the muscle spindle's action?

What is the process that results from the Golgi tendon organs inhibiting the muscle spindle's action?


a. muscle contraction

b. autogenic inhibition

c. internal rotation

d. neuromuscular imbalance



Answer: b. autogenic inhibition

The process that results from the Golgi tendon organs inhibiting the muscle spindle's action is autogenic inhibition. This occurs during stretching, when the stretch is maintained for 20 or more seconds, and the Golgi tendon organ overrides the muscle spindle's function, causing the muscle to relax.

What is the correct mathematical functional for determining the body mass index?

What is the correct mathematical functional for determining the body mass index?


a. multiply body fat percentage by weight

b. subtract client's weight from 222

c. divide body weight by height, kg/m^2

d. divide body height by weight, m^2/kg


Answer: c. divide body weight by height, kg/m^2

The correct mathematical function for determining the body mass index is to dived body weight by height, kg/m^2. This provides a number that indicates whether or not the client's weight and height are appropriate and at a healthy level.

When performing the Rockport test for cardiorespiratory assessment, how long should the client rest after walking the one mile before the pulse is checked?

When performing the Rockport test for cardiorespiratory assessment, how long should the client rest after walking the one mile before the pulse is checked?


a. three minutes

b. one minute

c. 30 seconds

d. no wait, check pulse immediately


Answer: d. no wait, check pulse immediately

When performing the Rockport test for cardiorespiratory assessment, the client's pulse should be checked immediately after walking the mile. The result is placed in an equation which results in a VO2 score and then indicates a heart rate zone.

The action the muscle spindle has on the muscle when excited is which of the following?

The action the muscle spindle has on the muscle when excited is which of the following?


a. the muscle fibers relax

b. the muscle fibers contract

c. the muscle is lengthened

d. the muscle produces force


Answer: b. the muscle fibers contract

When excited, the muscle spindle causes the muscle fibers to contract. This is because the spindles are sensitive to change in length and rate of length change.

Which organ is the sensory organ of the muscle?

Which organ is the sensory organ of the muscle?


a. muscle spindles

b. golgi tendon organ

c. myosensory organ

d. contractile fibers


Answer: a. muscle spindles

The sensory organ of the muscle are the muscle spindles. They are sensitive to change in length and rate of change within the muscle.

What measurements are used in establishing the BMI?

What measurements are used in establishing the BMI?


a. weight and cardiovascular level

b. weight and height

c. height and resting heart rate

d. resting heart rate and level of blood oxygen


Answer: b. weight and height

Weight and height are used in establishing the BMI. BMI can sometimes not be the best indicator of obesity because it only takes into account these two measurements, and not other factors such as body fat percentage or lean muscle mass.

What waist-to-hip ratio indicates a much higher risk for many diseases?

What waist-to-hip ratio indicates a much higher risk for many diseases?


a. above 0.95 for women, and above 0.80 for men

b. above 0.80 for women, and above 0.95 for men

c. above 0.65 for women, and above 0.70 for men

d. above 0.70 for women, and above 0.65 for men


Answer: b. above 0.80 for women, and above 0.95 for men

The waist-to-hip ratio that indicates a much higher risk for many diseases is above 0.80 for women, and above 0.95 for men. A high waist-to-hip ratio is indicative of excess fat stored in the mid-section, which correlates to many chronic disease conditions.

What method is NOT used to determine body fat measurements?

What method is NOT used to determine body fat measurements?


a. skin-fold caliper

b. ultrasound

c. bioelectric impedance

d. underwater weight


Answer: b. ultrasound

A method that is NOT used to determine body fat measurements is ultrasound. Body fat measurement is a very helpful tool in helping a client to determine measurable goals for their fitness program.

A normal blood pressure measurement is which of the following?

A normal blood pressure measurement is which of the following?


a. diastolic of 120 to 130 mmHg and systolic of 80 to 85 mmHg

b. systolic of 120 to 130 mmHg and diastolic of 80 to 85 mmHg

c. diastolic of 100 to 120 mmHg and systolic of 140 to 160 mmHg

d. systolic of 100 to 120 mmHg and diastolic of 140 to 160 mmHg


Answer: b. systolic of 120 to 130 mmHg and diastolic of 80 to 85 mmHg

A normal blood pressure measurement is systolic of 120 to 130 mmHg and diastolic of 80 to 85 mmHg. Blood pressure indicates the pressure produced by the heart while pumping, and the minimal pressure within arteries through a full cardiac cycle.

What is the best method for the client to determine their resting heart rate?

What is the best method for the client to determine their resting heart rate?


a. check their heart rate three mornings in a row, and take the average

b. make an appointment to visit a healthcare provider for readings

c. compare heart before and after strenuous physical activity

d. calculate it based on body temperature and number of calories consumed the previous day


Answer: a. check their heart rate three mornings in a row, and take the average

The best method for the client to determine their resting heart rate is to check their heart rate three mornings in a row, and take the average. This can be performed using the radial or carotid pulse.

Which of the following is the effect of medications that are Beta-blockers on heart rate and blood pressure?

Which of the following is the effect of medications that are Beta-blockers on heart rate and blood pressure?


a. increase heart rate, increased blood pressure

b. increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure

c. decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure

d. decreased heart rate, increased blood pressure


Answer: c. decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure

The effect of medications that are Beta-blockers is to decrease heart rate and blood pressure. It is important for the health and fitness professional to know this in order to understand possible physiological effects that may result and affect the client's ability to perform certain activities.

Which of the following is NOT a chronic condition?

Which of the following is NOT a chronic condition?


a. cardiovascular disease

b. obesity

c. plantar fasciitis

d. diabetes mellitus


Answer: c. plantar fasciitis

Plantar fasciitis is not a chronic condition, but a previous injury. The other conditions are considered to be chronic, or long term conditions.

Which of the following past injury can lead to a decrease in the neural control of stabilizing core muscles?

Which of the following past injury can lead to a decrease in the neural control of stabilizing core muscles?


a. ankle sprain

b. lower back injuries

c. shoulder injuries

d. groin strains


Answer: b. lower back injuries

A past injury that can lead to a decrease in the neural control of stabilizing core muscles is a lower back injury. This type of injury can result in instability in the spine, leading to further dysfunction of the limbs.

Which of the following past injury can lead to a decrease in neural control of the patella?

Which of the following past injury can lead to a decrease in neural control of the patella?


a. ankle sprains

b. lower back injuries

c. knee injury involving ligaments

d. shoulder injuries


Answer: c. knee injury involving ligaments

A past injury that can lead to a decrease in neural control of the patella is a knee injury involving ligaments. This type of injury prevents adequate stabilization of the patella by the related muscles.

Which chronic occupational postural habit can lead to tightness in the gastrocnemius and soleus?

Which chronic occupational postural habit can lead to tightness in the gastrocnemius and soleus?


a. wearing high heeled shoes

b. long term sitting, like at a desk

c. repetitive movements

d. postural imbalances


Answer: a. wearing high heeled shoes

A Chronic occupational postural habit can lead to tightness in the gastrocnemius and soleus is wearing high heels. The foot is placed in plantarflexion for extended periods, leading to this tightness, which can lead to significant postural imbalances.

What type of chronic lifestyle habit can lead to tight hip flexors and potentially result in postural imbalances?

What type of chronic lifestyle habit can lead to tight hip flexors and potentially result in postural imbalances?


a. lifting heavy objects with poor form

b. standing with slouching posture

c. wearing high heels

d. sitting for long periods of time such as at a desk for work


Answer: d. sitting for long periods of time such as at a desk for work

A chronic lifestyle habit that can lead to tight hip flexors and potentially result in postural imbalances is sitting for long periods of time such as at a desk for work. Long term sitting can also result in shoulder fatigue, which leads to the round of the shoulders.

Which of the following tasks is NOT one that health and fitness professional should perform for the client?

Which of the following tasks is NOT one that health and fitness professional should perform for the client?


a. use exercise to help client improve overall health

b. provide general information on healthy nutrition and diet

c. prescribe diets and specific supplements

d. identify potential health risks through a thorough screening process


Answer: c. prescribe diets and specific supplements

A task that is NOT one that a health and fitness professional should perform for the client is to prescribe specific diets and supplements. Guidance may be provided on general dietary requirements, but for a specific diet plan, the client should be referred to a dietitian.

What types of information are provided by a fitness assessment?

What types of information are provided by a fitness assessment?


a. information on medical history and health issues

b. information about activity level, hobbies and abilities

c. a representation of the client's goals and needs

d. all of the above


Answer: d. all of the above

Types of information provided by a fitness assessment are information about medical history, health issues, previous injuries of conditions, habits and hobbies, and an overall representation of the client's needs and goals. This allows the health and fitness professional to craft an individualized plan for the client.

What is the systematic way of observing a client's structural and functional status?

What is the systematic way of observing a client's structural and functional status?


a. diagnose conditions

b. perform nutritional counseling

c. fitness assessment

d. variable selection


Answer: c. fitness assessment

A systematic way to observe a client's structural and functional status is a fitness assessment. This is a method of observation and data gathering by which the health and fitness professional can determine the specific exercise needs of a client.

Sensorimotor integration is the nervous systems ability to perform what function?

Sensorimotor integration is the nervous systems ability to perform what function?


a. interpret sensory stimulus in order to execute appropriate motor response

b. integrate the kinetic chain into the nervous system's response

c. determine the efficiency of a muscle movement

d. produce enough force to affect a rotary motion


Answer: a. interpret sensory stimulus in order to execute appropriate motor response

Sensorimotor integration is the nervous systems ability to interpret sensory stimulus in order to execute appropriate motor response. This is vital to the trainer providing proper guidance on form and function of exercises in order for the client to learn and train them properly and achieve positive results. If trained using improper exercise technique, the client will continue to perform that in that manner, and develop muscular imbalance or dysfunction.

What form of sensory input allows the body to sense position, motion, and sensations of muscles and joints?

What form of sensory input allows the body to sense position, motion, and sensations of muscles and joints?


a. mechanoreception

b. joint receptors

c. proprioception

d. balance


Answer: c. proprioception

Sensory input that allows the body to sense position, motion and sensations of muscles and joints is called proprioception. Mechanoreceptors provide information to the nervous system to inform muscle and joints and allow efficient movement.

The response of the kinetic chain to stimulus from its internal and external environments is called what?

The response of the kinetic chain to stimulus from its internal and external environments is called what?


a. muscle integration

b. motor control

c. motor behavior

d. proprioception


Answer: c. motor behavior

The response of the kinetic chain to stimulus from its internal and external environments is called motor behavior. The nervous, skeletal and muscular systems work together to produce movement response to stimuli, and therefore are studied in order to understand motor behavior.

The sternocleidomastoid performs what isolated functions?

The sternocleidomastoid performs what isolated functions?


a. concentrically accelerates cervical flexion

b. concentrically accelerates abduction of the arm

c. concentrically accelerates cervical rotation

d. a and c


Answer: d. a and c

The sternocleidomastoid concentrically accelerates cervical flexion (a) and rotation (c). Though all muscles are interconnected and interoperable with one another ,this muscle has no direct impact on the movement of the arm.

Which of the following leg muscle does NOT provide isometric stability to the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?

Which of the following leg muscle does NOT provide isometric stability to the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?


a. adductor brevis

b. adductor magnus-anterior fibers

c. adductor magnus-posterior fibers

d. rectus femoris


Answer: b. adductor magnus-anterior fibers

The leg muscle that does not provide isometric stability to the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex is the Adductor magnus-anterior fibers. This muscle provides dynnamic stability to the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex.

Which muscle action is used to dynamically stabilize the body through its noticeable lack of change in muscle length?

Which muscle action is used to dynamically stabilize the body through its noticeable lack of change in muscle length?


a. concentric

b. eccentric

c. static

d. isometric


Answer: d. isometric

The muscle action used to dynamically stabilize the body through its noticeable lack of change in muscle length is isometric. In isometric action there is no change in muscle length because the muscle is exerting the same amount of force as is being placed upon it. An example of this action is when the weight stops for a pause at the midpoint of an exercise where the weight is being maintained in position and motionless by the muscle.

When performing a military press (overhead), as the weight is being lowered back down to the starting position, what muscle action is being performed?

When performing a military press (overhead), as the weight is being lowered back down to the starting position, what muscle action is being performed?


a. concentric

b. eccentric

c. dorsimetric

d. isometric


Answer: b. eccentric

When performing a military press, as the weight is being lowered back down to the starting position, this is the eccentric action of the muscle. Eccentric action is characterized by the muscle exerting less force than that which is placed upon it. In laymen's terms, this is known as the "negative" of the muscle action.

A motion in the transverse plane would include which of the following?

A motion in the transverse plane would include which of the following?


a. flexion of the biceps (curl)

b. lateral flexion during a side lunge

c. internal rotation of the trunk

d. extension of the arms in a triceps pushdown


Answer: c. internal rotation of the trunk

A motion in the transverse plane would include the internal rotation of the trunk. This motion occurs around a longitudinal axis.

Which plane of motion occurs around the coronal axis?

Which plane of motion occurs around the coronal axis?


a. medial

b. frontal

c. sagittal

d. transverse


Answer: c. sagittal

The plane of motion that occurs around a coronal axis is the sagittal plane. This plane bisects the body into left and right, and allows for flexion and extension.

Which of the following anatomic parts is the most distal from the right clavicle?

Which of the following anatomic parts is the most distal from the right clavicle?


a. the head

b. the right scapula

c. the right hand

d. the left foot


Answer: d. the left foot

The anatomic part that is most distal to the right clavicle in this question is the left foot. Distal refers to a part that is further form the point of reference (the clavicle) or from the center of the body.

In anatomic position, the head is located where in relation to the pelvis?

In anatomic position, the head is located where in relation to the pelvis?


a. superior

b. proximal

c. caudal

d. ipsilateral


Answer: a. superior

In anatomic position, the head is located superior to the pelvis. The pelvis, in turn, is located inferior to the head.

What are some main characteristics of the oxidative pathway?

What are some main characteristics of the oxidative pathway?


a. for activities of short periods of time but high intensity

b. for activities with moderate length of time and intensity

c. for activities of longer duration and high intensity

d. for activities of longer duration and lower intensity


Answer: d. for activities of longer duration and lower intensity

Some main characteristics of the oxidative pathway are that it provides energy for activities of longer duration and lower intensity. Walking for 20 or 30 minutes is an exercise that would derive its energy from the oxidative pathway.

What are bioenergetic systems?

What are bioenergetic systems?



Answer: metabolic processes which relate to the flow of energy in the living organisms. Those processes convert the energy into adenosine triphosphate, which is the form of chemical energy suitable for muscular activity.

Which of the bioenergetics pathways commences immediately upon the onset of physical activity and produces energy quickly?

Which of the bioenergetics pathways commences immediately upon the onset of physical activity and produces energy quickly?


a. oxidative pathway

b. aerobic pathway

c. glycolysis pathway

d. ATP-CP pathway


Answer: d. ATP-CP pathway

The ATP-CP pathway commences immediately upon the onset of physical activity and quickly results in energy. This pathway provides energy for short durations, and therefore is ideal for quick and powerful bursts of intense activity.

ATP-CP system (phosphagen system) is used only for short durations. This system neither uses oxygen nor produces lactic acid if oxygen is unavailable and is thus said to be alactic anaerobic. This is the primary system behind very short, powerful movements.

What is the correct makeup of the Adenosine Triphosphate structure?

What is the correct makeup of the Adenosine Triphosphate structure?


a. adenine, phosphate and glucose

b. adenine, ribose and nitrogen

c. adenine, phosphate and carbon dioxide

d. adenine, ribose and phosphate


Answer: d. adenine, ribose and phosphate

The correct makeup of ATP structure is adenine, ribose and phosphate. As food is broken down, this creates ATP, which is the energy which fuels muscle contractions.

The production of ATP is accomplished via three bioenergetic pathways. Which of the following is NOT one of these pathways?

The production of ATP is accomplished via three bioenergetic pathways. Which of the following is NOT one of these pathways?


a. oxidative pathway

b. glycolysis pathway

c. submaximal consumption pathway

d. ATP-CP pathway


Answer: c. submaximal consumption pathway

The submaximal consumption pathway is not a bioenergetic pathway which produces ATP. Submaximal consumption refers to the maximum amount of oxygen consumption during strenuous exercise.

The biological study of energy transformation and exchange within the body, between the body and the environment is called what?

The biological study of energy transformation and exchange within the body, between the body and the environment is called what?


a. aerobic energy conversion

b. anaerobic energy conversion

c. bioenergetics

d. energetics


Answer: c. bioenergetics

Bioenergetics is the study of energy transformation and exchange within the body, between the body, and the environment. The process of the body converting the chemical energy of food into mechanical energy is known as an energy-yielding process.

Where within the respiratory system does the exchange of gases, or diffusion occur?

Where within the respiratory system does the exchange of gases, or diffusion occur?


a. larynx

b. bronchiles

c. alveoli

d. alveolar sacs


Answer: d. alveolar sacs

The actual exchange of gases within the respiratory system occurs in the Alveolar sacs. These are the smallest structure within the lungs, and it is here that the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs, passing these gasses into or out of the bloodstream.

What part of the heart's conduction system initiates the heartbeat?

What part of the heart's conduction system initiates the heartbeat?


a. atrioventricular node (AV)

b. sinoatrial node (SA)

c. purkinje fibers

atrioventricular bundle (Bundle of His)


Answer: b. sinoatrial node (SA)

The sinoatrial node (SA) initiates the heartbeat from within the right atrium. The electrical impulse then passes along through the atrioventricular node (AV) to become delayed slightly before passing to the ventricle to cause the contraction, or heartbeat.

Which chamber of the heart collects the deoxygenated blood from its cycle after delivering oxygen throughout the body?

Which chamber of the heart collects the deoxygenated blood from its cycle after delivering oxygen throughout the body?


a. right atrium

b. left atrium

c. right ventricle

d. left ventricle


Answer: a. right atrium

The right atrium collects the deoxygenated blood from its cycle after delivering oxygen throughout the body. The blood then travels to the right ventricle to be pumped to the lungs and become reoxygenated.

While performing an overhead press, which muscle would be the prime mover, or agonist?

While performing an overhead press, which muscle would be the prime mover, or agonist?


a. triceps

b. latissimus dorsi

c. rotator cuff

d. deltoid


Answer: d. deltoid

The prime mover, or agonist, for performing an overhead press would be the deltoid muscle. The synergist would be the triceps, the stabilizer would be the rotator cuff, and the antagonist would be the latissimus dorsi.

The type of muscle mover that is most responsible for a specific movement within the musculoskeletal system is which of the following?

The type of muscle mover that is most responsible for a specific movement within the musculoskeletal system is which of the following?


a. synergist

b. stabilizer

c. agonist

d. antagonist


Answer: c. agonist

An agonist muscle (or prime mover) is the most responsible for producing a specific movement. The synergist, stabilizer, and antagonist muscles for that movement will assist the agonist in movement, help provide stability, and produce opposite actions to those of the agonist.

What are the characteristics of Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibers?

What are the characteristics of Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibers?


a. larger size

b. more capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin

c. more force produced

d. answers a and c


Answer: d. answers a and c

Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibers are characterized by their larger size and ability to produce more force. Type II muscle fibers actually have LESS capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin than Type I muscle fibers.

What type of muscle is more resistant to fatigue and benefits more from longer contractions to produce stabilization?

What type of muscle is more resistant to fatigue and benefits more from longer contractions to produce stabilization?


a. type I

b. type II

c. type IIa

d. type IIb


Answer: a. type I

Type I muscles are more resistant to fatigue and use longer contractions to yield postural stabilization and control. Type II, IIa, and IIb are more apt to become fatigued quickly through use, and are therefore responsible for shorter term contractions that produce more powerful movements, such as sprinting.

The sliding filament theory is the proposed method by which muscle contraction occurs after neural activation. During this process, what occurs within the muscle fiber after the myosin heads attach to the actin filament?

The sliding filament theory is the proposed method by which muscle contraction occurs after neural activation. During this process, what occurs within the muscle fiber after the myosin heads attach to the actin filament?


a. actin filament is pulled across the myosin

b. chemical messengers transfer the electrical impulse to the muscle

c. neurotransmitters attach at receptor sites

d. action potentials transmit impulses.


Answer: a. actin filament is pulled across the myosin

After the myosin heads attach to the actin filament, the actin is pulled across the myosin, which shortens the fiber length (Z lines converging) and causes muscle contraction.

Muscle contraction can only occur through the generation of neural activation. Which of the following is not a part of this process?

Muscle contraction can only occur through the generation of neural activation. Which of the following is not a part of this process?


a. electrical impulses travel along the neuron

b. muscle fibers are wrapped together into bundles

c. acetylcholine stimulates muscle fibers

d. release of neurotransmitters occurs


Answer: b. muscle fibers are wrapped together into bundles

Muscle fibers are being wrapped together does not generate neural activation, it is simply a description of the anatomy of the muscle fiber. Muscle contraction occurs after the electrical impulse travels along the neuron, neurotransmitters are released across the synapse to muscle fiber, and then acetylcholine produces the contraction of the muscle.

What is known as the functional unit of muscle?

What is known as the functional unit of muscle?


a. myofibril

b. sarcolemma

c. sarcomere

d. tropomyosin


Answer: c. sarcomere

The sarcomere is the functional unit of the muscle. It consists of thin actin filaments and thick myosin filaments in repeating sections that cause muscle contraction.

Which system is the control center for producing movement?

Which system is the control center for producing movement?


a. muscular system

b. musculoskeletal system

c. respiratory system

d. nervous system


Answer: d. nervous system

The nervous system is the control center for producing movement. The nervous system acts upon the muscular system to initiate tension to effect movement and stabilization.

Which of the following functions is NOT that of ligaments?

Which of the following functions is NOT that of ligaments?


a. provides static and dynamic stability

b. provides proprioception

c. acts as the primary connective tissue for attaching muscle to bone

d. acts as the primary connective tissue between bones within a joint


Answer: c. acts as the primary connective tissue for attaching muscle to bone

Ligaments do not attach muscle to bone. Tendons anchor muscle to bone to allow for force production. Ligaments attach bone to bone within a joint providing stability and preventing improper movements of that joint.

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