Archive for July 2017

What are some causes of a third-degree AV block?

What are some causes of a third-degree AV block?




a. certain drugs, such as quinidine and atropine

b. age, digitalis intoxication, or myocardial infarction

c. heart disease and damage from uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

d. hypertension, coronary artery disease, and cardiomyopathy





Answer: B

What is a Wenckebach AV block?

What is a Wenckebach AV block?




a. a delay in the conduction of the impulse through the AV junction

b. increasingly difficult AV node conduction showing a P wave not followed by a QRS complex on ECG

c. a delayed AV conduction at the bundle braches

d. no conduction if impulse from the atria to the ventricles



Answer: B

Which characteristic below accurately describes a T wave?

Which characteristic below accurately describes a T wave?




a. frequently hard to detect in a normal ECG

b. suggests ischemia if inverted

c. prominent peaks may indicate myocardial infarction of hyperkalemia

d. is normally perfectly symmetrical




Answer: C

Which of the following statements about relative oxygen consumption is true?

Which of the following statements about relative oxygen consumption is true?





a. according to the ACSM, a female with given mass of lean body tissue requires less oxygen at rest than a male of the same mass

b. according to the ACSM, a given mass of lean body tissue requires more oxygen at rest than while in limited motion

c. the resting relative oxygen consumption is always the same, 3.5mLkg^-1min^-1

d. all ACSM formulas provide VO2 values in relative terms




Answer: C

What would a higher value of the VO2Max indicate?

What would a higher value of the VO2Max indicate?





a. greater aerobic fitness

b. diminished aerobic fitness

c. a lower level of relative oxygen consumption

d. a greater time required to consume the same amount of oxygen




Answer: A

What is absolute oxygen consumption?

What is absolute oxygen consumption?



a. the total amount of oxygen consumed in a workout

b. the total amount of oxygen consumed in a day

c. the total rate of oxygen consumption during a period of measure

d. the total rate of oxygen consumption by the whole person





Answer: D

Which client should have a Physician's Clearance before commencing or continuing any fitness program?

Which client should have a Physician's Clearance before commencing or continuing any fitness program?




a. one who has never had any type of surgical procedure

b. one who tells you they are nervous about an incident of shortness of breath that was once experienced

c. one with considerable health risks noted on the preparticipation documentation

d. one who exhibits no signs and symptoms of any increased risk




Answer: C

What is the major purpose of an organization chart?

What is the major purpose of an organization chart?




a. specifies the chain of command

b. shows the most important senior staff members

c. gives client a choice of trainers

d. reiterates levels of responsibility





Answer: A

What is the danger associated with too little fat intake in the diet, less than 20% of total energy consumed?

What is the danger associated with too little fat intake in the diet, less than 20% of total energy consumed?




a. decreased ability to process carbohydrates properly

b. insufficient energy for daily activities (IE-less than 1200 kcal per day)

c. dry hair and skin due to inadequate fats and amino acids

d. poor absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and unfavorable changes in "good" cholesterol levels






Answer: D

What is assessed by air displacement plethysmography?

What is assessed by air displacement plethysmography?



a. blood glucose levels

b. calcium level in arteries

c. body composition

d. amount of calories burned during an exercise session






Answer: C

Why is it important for clients with diabetes mellitus to avoid hypoglycemia during and after exercise?

Why is it important for clients with diabetes mellitus to avoid hypoglycemia during and after exercise?




a. they may become lightheaded and sustain injury during workouts

b. so that their body temperature does not become elevated too rapidly during activity

c. exercise enhances insulin receptor sensitivity and has an insulin-like affect on blood glucose

d. it may result in claudication




Answer: C

Which of the following statements is true of exercise progression?

Which of the following statements is true of exercise progression?




a. increasing the frequency and duration of an exercise before the intensity is better

b. the rate of progression depends on the fitness professional's assessments

c. improvement depends on sudden and drastic changes in intensity, duration, and frequency to achieve the best results



Answer: A

What is appropriate first aid for frost bite?

What is appropriate first aid for frost bite?




a. move to a warm area and rub gently to return circulation to affected area

b. move to a warm area and remove wet clothing, but do not rub affected area

c. use external warming to restore body temperature to affected area and rub gently to return circulation

d. gently remove any clothing frozen to skin and place in warm water, then rub gently with a warm towel or clean cloth




Answer: B

Which of the following correctly describes the function of a cable tensiometer?

Which of the following correctly describes the function of a cable tensiometer?





a. measures the strength of the back, leg, and forearm

b. measures static strength by measuring force exerted while pulling on a steel cable

c. measures strength as cable is bent or deformed by force exerted

d. measures strength based on amount of weight that can be lifted one time for a given exercise




Answer: B

What is the test function of Holter ECG monitoring?

What is the test function of Holter ECG monitoring?




a. monitors blood glucose level throughout the day

b. radioactive dye is injected to show abnormalities in the ECG

c. measures the vasodilation of the major vessels of the heart and shows them on the ECG

d. tracks abnormalities on the ECG as they occur throughout the day





Answer: D

Which of the following is not a standard practice for skinfold testing?

Which of the following is not a standard practice for skinfold testing?




a. all measurements should be performed on the left side of the body

b. wait 1 to 2 seconds before reading the caliper

c. abdominal measurement occurs at the vertical fold, 2 cm to the right of the umbilicus

d. pinch should be maintained while reading caliper




Answer: A

What does not need to be included in site emergency plans?

What does not need to be included in site emergency plans?




a. written emergency plans posted clearly

b. posted emergency phone numbers

c. staff schedules

d. scheduled practice emergency drills




Answer: C

During the physical assessment and laboratory test phase, a client's blood results show high levels of homocysteine. What are the increased risks associated with this result?

During the physical assessment and laboratory test phase, a client's blood results show high levels of homocysteine. What are the increased risks associated with this result?




a. myocardial infarction, stroke, and sudden cardiac death

b. coronary artery disease, stroke, thromboemboli, and perpheral artery disease

c. pulmonary disease, asthma, COPD, and emphysema

d. hypertension, increased blood cholesterol, and diabetes melliuts




Answer: B

What is the proper way to measure a resting heart rate?

What is the proper way to measure a resting heart rate?




a. after client has sat quietly for 5 minutes, palpate pulse at radial or carotid artery for 30 seconds

b. after client has lain prone quietly for 5 minutes, palpate pulse at radial or carotid artery for 30 seconds

c. after client has sat quietly for 15 minutes, palpate pulse at radial or carotid artery for 10 seconds and multiply by 6

d. after client has sat quietly for 5 minutes, palpate pulse at radial or carotid artery for 60 seconds



Answer: A

What is the procedure that uses a balloon to flatten plaque against the wall of an artery to create a more patent space within the artery for improved blood flow?

What is the procedure that uses a balloon to flatten plaque against the wall of an artery to create a more patent space within the artery for improved blood flow?





a. percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)

b. atherectomy

c. laser angioplasty

d. coronary artery bypass graft surgery (CABGS)





Answer: A

What is a complication of myocardial infarction that results from a thinning of the myocardial wall and increases risk of thrombus, ventricular arrhythmias, and heart failure?

What is a complication of myocardial infarction that results from a thinning of the myocardial wall and increases risk of thrombus, ventricular arrhythmias, and heart failure?



a. papillary necrosis

b. left ventricular dysfunction

c. ventricular aneurysm

d. ventricular rupture




Answer: C

Hormonal imbalances connected with long-term, intense training in female athletes, which results in amenorrhea, has been associated with what abnormal effects?

Hormonal imbalances connected with long-term, intense training in female athletes, which results in amenorrhea, has been associated with what abnormal effects?




a. lower circulating hormone levels and decreased bone density resulting in osteoporosis

b. increased chances of obesity later in life

c. infertility

d. increased level of gonadotropin-releasing hormone



Answer: A

What age related change is associated with increased risk for cardiovascular disease, insulin resistance, glucose intolerance, and abnormal lipoprotein profiles?

What age related change is associated with increased risk for cardiovascular disease, insulin resistance, glucose intolerance, and abnormal lipoprotein profiles?



a. sarcopenia

b. decreased circulating growth hormone

c. increased central-to-peripheral adiposity measurements

d. decreased performance ability





Answer: C

Which of the following statements about the heart and exercise is true?

Which of the following statements about the heart and exercise is true?





a. aerobic training can have a significant positive impact on maximal heart rate

b. resting heart rate is significantly lowered after intense training

c. cardiac output is much greater when performing exercises in a prone position

d. during exercise, blood flow is greatly increased to all organ systems by means of vasodilation




Answer: B

Which of the following is used to assess coronary artery calcium?

Which of the following is used to assess coronary artery calcium?




a. electron beam computed tomography

b. radionuclide ventriculography

c. single photon emission computed tomography

d. radionuclide scintigraphy



Answer: A

What does predischarge exercise testing following myocardial infarction accomplish?

What does predischarge exercise testing following myocardial infarction accomplish?




a. tests the degree of improvement since discharge

b. helps to design an exercise program

c. evaluates the client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL)

d. identifies signs and symptoms





Answer: C

What function best describes the use of a goniometer?

What function best describes the use of a goniometer?



a. measures body composition

b. tests flexibility

c. assesses breathing capacity

d. test endurance using time and distance factors




Answer: B

What is the Mason Likar modification?

What is the Mason Likar modification?



a. an adjustment made during metabolic formula used to account for errors due to obesity

b. an alteration to the formula determining gross oxygen consumption for clients with asthma

c. a different arrangement for placing electrodes in a 12-lead ECG

d. a way to add resistance to certain exercises without physically increasing the weight of the dumbbell or apparatus





Answer: C

What is specifically recorded by LEAD III on a 12-lead ECG?

What is specifically recorded by LEAD III on a 12-lead ECG?




a. the difference in electrical potential between the left leg and left arm electrodes

b. the difference in electrical potential between the left leg and right arm electrodes

c. the difference in electrical potential between the left arm and right arm electrodes

d. the electrical potential at one site relative to zero potential




Answer: A

What is the measurement provided by the PR interval on an ECG?

What is the measurement provided by the PR interval on an ECG?





a. the time needed for the impulse to spread through the ventricles and pass through the SA node

b. the time needed for the impulse to spread through the atria and pass through the SA node

c. the time needed for the impulse to spread through the ventricles and pass through the AV junction

d. the time needed for the impulse to spread through the atria and pass through the AV junction





Answer: D

What is the normal polarity of a myocardial cell during the resting period, which causes the electrical potential in for the cell?

What is the normal polarity of a myocardial cell during the resting period, which causes the electrical potential in for the cell?





a. positively charged

b. negatively charged

c. outside the cell membrane is negatively charged, inside is positively charged

d. inside the cell membrane is negatively charged, outside is positively charged




Answer: D

What is the horizontal component of the walking formula?

What is the horizontal component of the walking formula?





a. the product of the fractional grade of the treadmill multiplied by the speed of the treadmill

b. the product of the speed of the treadmill in meters per minute, multiplied by 0.1

c. the degree angle of inclination of the treadmill

d. the percent grade of the treadmill



Answer: B

Based on the amount of energy that is stored in one pound of fat, how many miles would you have to run in order to burn enough calories to lose a pound of fat, knowing that walking or running a mile burns 100 calories?

Based on the amount of energy that is stored in one pound of fat, how many miles would you have to run in order to burn enough calories to lose a pound of fat, knowing that walking or running a mile burns 100 calories? 




a. 5 miles

b. 10 miles

c. 25 miles

d. 35 miles




Answer: D

Which of the following are not purposes for having a budget?

Which of the following are not purposes for having a budget?





a. being accountable for expenses

b. evaluation program financial performance

c. developing a financial plan

d. determining if revenue generated is sufficient to cover expenses





Answer: D

Holding regular staff meetings, complying with the organizational chart, and having an "open door" policy are all important way to do what?

Holding regular staff meetings, complying with the organizational chart, and having an "open door" policy are all important way to do what?



a. encourage staff development and professional growth

b. ensure proper policy implementation across the entire staff

c. foster effective communication among staff and members

d. police competency in credentialed staff





Answer: C

Which of the following is not a usual activity of a program director?

Which of the following is not a usual activity of a program director?





a. to act as a counselor by listening to staff and clients and offering opinions, regardless of how difficult they may be to relay

b. to assess program and client needs by monitoring safety

c. to motivate clients and staff by demonstrating strong communication skills and demonstrating enthusiasm

d. to ensure adequate staffing by developing and coordinating work schedules



Answer: A

What does the National Institutes of Health (NIH) recommend as a health and realistic weight loss goal for patients whose BMI indicates a need for weight loss?

What does the National Institutes of Health (NIH) recommend as a health and realistic weight loss goal for patients whose BMI indicates a need for weight loss?



a. 2-4 pounds per week

b. 10% of initial weight over 6 months' time

c. 15% of initial weight over 6 momths' time

d. dcreasing BMI by 3-5 points over 6 months




Answer: B

What clinical limits define the eating disorder anorexia nervosa?

What clinical limits define the eating disorder anorexia nervosa?




a. BMI < 20 and body weight at least 15% below the lowest value for height

b. BMI < 17.5 and body weight at least 15% below the lowest value for height

c. BMI < 20 and body weight at least 10% below the lowest value for height

d. BMI < 17.5 and body weight at least 20% below the lowest value for height




Answer: B

How is total lean mass measured or determine?

How is total lean mass measured or determine?





a. total body weight - body fat percentage

b. BMI

c. skinfold testing

d. total body mass-fat mass





Answer: D

How does the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention define being "overweight"?

How does the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention define being "overweight"?




a. BMI > 20

b. body fat > 30

c. body weight that is higher than what is considered healthy for a specific height

d. body weight that is high enough that it creates additional disease risk factors





Answer: C

What is the type of breathing recommended while performing resistance training?

What is the type of breathing recommended while performing resistance training?





a. exhaling during eccentric part of exercise, inhaling during concentric part

b. exhaling during the concentric part, inhaling during the eccentric part

c. valsalva maneuver

d. holding breath during the harder parts of moving the weight




Answer: B

What terms apply during the initial stage of conditioning?

What terms apply during the initial stage of conditioning?



a 10-15 minute warm-up, moderate intensity, 15-30 minute duration, 3-4 days a week

b. 10-15 minute warm-up, moderate to high intensity, 30-40 minute duration, 5-6 days a week

c. 10-15 minute warm up, moderate intensity, 30-45 minute duration, 4-6 days per week

d. 10-15 minute warm-up, low intensity, 30 minute duration, 3-4 days a week





Answer: A

Which of the following statements about duration is not true?

Which of the following statements about duration is not true?





a high-intensity and short duration exercise is associated with higher risk of injury

b. excessive duration is associated with increased compliance

c. increases in duration should occur as adaptation occurs to maintain effectiveness

d. an inverse relationship exists between duration and intensity






Answer: B

What definition below is correct for a MET?

What definition below is correct for a MET?




a. the amount of oxygen intake used per minute during aerobic activity

b. the relative physiologic difficulty of an exercise

c. a measure of caloric content present in fats are digested during exercise

d. the caloric consumption of an individual while at complete rest





Answer: D

What types of activities are most effective for cardiovascular endurance?

What types of activities are most effective for cardiovascular endurance?





a. small muscle groups are engaged cooperatively for longer periods (30 minutes or more)

b. small muscle groups are engaged in continuous, rhythmic activity

c. large muscle groups are engaged in continuous, rhythmic activity

d. large muscle groups are engaged in slow, intense bursts of activity



Answer: C

Which of the following correctly includes all components of a well-devised exercise plan?

Which of the following correctly includes all components of a well-devised exercise plan?




a. warm-up, cardiovascular training, resistance training, flexibility training, cool-down

b. warm-up, cardiovascular training, flexibility training, cool-down

c. warm-up, resistance training, flexibility training, cool-down

d. warm-up, strength training, flexibility training, cool-down




Answer: A

What are ACSM recommendations for flexibility training?

What are ACSM recommendations for flexibility training?





a. stretching should immediately precede a workout and be performed 2-3 days per week

b. stretching to the point of tightness (but not to pain) and holding the stretch for 30-40 seconds

c. only the most used muscle groups need stretching

d. stretching should be performed no less than 2-3 days per week, but ideally 5-7 days per week




Answer: D

The 2008 Physical Guidelines for Americans indicates all of the following guidelines for adults except what?

The 2008 Physical Guidelines for Americans indicates all of the following guidelines for adults except what?



a. 2 hours and 30 minutes each week of moderate intensity exercise

b. aerobic episodes of at least 40 minutes long spread throughout the week

c. muscle strengthening activities for all major muscle groups 2 or more days per week

d. older adults should follow the same guidelines if possible





Answer: B

What is the current recommendation by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for adults performing moderate-intensity physical activity?

What is the current recommendation by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for adults performing moderate-intensity physical activity?




a. at least 30 minutes on 5+ days each week

b. at least 20 minutes on 5-7 days each week

c. at least 45 minutes on 3 days each week

d. at least 20 minutes on 3 days each week




Answer: A

Profuse sweating, cold and clammy skin, muscle spasm, headache, nausea, loss of consciousness, low blood pressure, and normal to slightly high body temperature are signs of what heat-related emergency?

Profuse sweating, cold and clammy skin, muscle spasm, headache, nausea, loss of consciousness, low blood pressure, and normal to slightly high body temperature are signs of what heat-related emergency?



a. heat exhaustion

b. heat stroke

c. heat cramps

d. heat syncope





Answer: A

Which of the descriptions below accurately represents the RICES protocol to injury care?

Which of the descriptions below accurately represents the RICES protocol to injury care?



a. rest, ice, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, emergency, and stabilize

b. rest, ice, compression, exhaust, and splint

c. rest, isolate, compression, emergency, and splint

d. rest, ice, compression, elevation, and stabilization




Answer: D

Which behaviors can be helpful in reducing the negative symptoms of high altitude?

Which behaviors can be helpful in reducing the negative symptoms of high altitude?



a. ascend quickly to quickly acclimate to the altitude

b. sleep at an altitude higher than the elevation where exercise will occur

c. sleep at an altitude lower than the elevation where exercise will occur

d. eat a high fat diet and exercise regularly





Answer: C

In the Rockport test, when is the client's heart rate measured?

In the Rockport test, when is the client's heart rate measured?



a. immediately for 15 seconds posttest

b. immediately for 30 second posttest

c. after a 30 second recovery, for 15 seconds posttest

d. after 1 minute of recovery, for 15 seconds posttest





Answer: A

During a 3-minute stage of a graded exercise test, when should the heart rate be assessed?

During a 3-minute stage of a graded exercise test, when should the heart rate be assessed?




a. every minute

b. at minute 3 and each subsequent third minute until steady state is achieved

c. at minute 2 and then after the third minute, every 3 minutes until steady is achieved

d. at minutes 2 and 3, and then at every minute until steady state is achieved



Answer: D

What is the recommended order for fitness assessments when conducted on the same day?

What is the recommended order for fitness assessments when conducted on the same day?




a. body composition, flexibility, resting measurements, muscular fitness, cardiorespiratory fitness

b. resting measurements, flexibility, body composition, muscular fitness, cardiorespiratory fitness

c. resting measurements, body composition, cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular fitness, flexibility

d. flexibility, resting measurements, body composition, muscular fitness, cardiorespiratory fitness





Answer: C

What does an implied consent form not provide?

What does an implied consent form not provide?




a. evidence that client was informed of purposes, procedures, and risks of exercise testing

b. coverage for improper test administration due to accidental omissions

c. written documentation of providing necessary information to the client prior to the testing

d. information to the client so that they can make an informed decisions about participating in the exercise testing



Answer: B

What are the five A's of counseling a client who has experienced a lapse in exercise motivation in order to prevent it from getting words and becoming a relapse or total collapse?

What are the five A's of counseling a client who has experienced a lapse in exercise motivation in order to prevent it from getting words and becoming a relapse or total collapse?



a. address failures, assess motivation, advise changes, assist, arrange follow-up

b. address agenda, assess, admonish failings, advise improvement, appreciate improvement

c. address agenda, assess, advise, assist, arrange follow-up

d. agenda, assurance, advise, ask questions, advance the program





Answer: C

What is one way to encourage a participant to find time and enjoyment from exercise by eliminating barriers to maintaining an exercise program?

What is one way to encourage a participant to find time and enjoyment from exercise by eliminating barriers to maintaining an exercise program?




a. teach problem solving techniques that remove perceived barriers

b. highlighting the benefits of exercise

c. assessing self-efficacy

d. showing how to observe successes vicariously




Answer: A

Which of the following does not accurately describe part of the Health Belief Model?

Which of the following does not accurately describe part of the Health Belief Model?



a. people will engage in a given behavior when they perceive threat of disease

b. taking action depends on the ease of overcoming barriers regardless of the perceived rewards or benefits

c. concept of self-efficacy is a major component of this model

d. incorporates cues to action






Answer: B
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