True or false? The lowering of the body in a vertical jump test pre stretches the muscles in order to use the elastic or passive muscle force of these muscles as the person forcefully jumps upward.
Which law of motion is described by the following: any force acting on an object is always accompanied by another force that is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
a. Law of Reaction
b. Law of Levers
c. Law of Inertia
d. Law of Acceleration
Which one of the mechanical laws of motion states that an object at rest stays at rest while an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an external force?
a. Law of Reaction
b. Law of Inertia
c. Law of Levers
d. Law of Acceleration
Which of the following is NOT true regarding wheelchair propulsion?
a. Muscles of internal rotation of the shoulder are used to a greater degree than the external rotators.
b. Wheelchair athletes train to produce maximal torque to the wheelchair rim to create maximal velocity.
c. Forward movement requires a powerful external rotation at the shoulder followed by a recovery phase using internal rotators.
d. Overuse injuries are common in the shoulder region due to unequal agonist/antagonist muscle use.
For individuals with a short leg gait due to a leg length difference, which of the following would NOT be a typical biomechanical response?
a. Exaggerated flexion of the knee and hip of the unaffected limb
b. Hip "hiking" during swing phase for foot clearance
c. Weight bearing on the lateral edge of the foot
d. Pelvic rotation to one side
True or false? The "braking" subphase of the gait cycle occurs at the initial contact of the foot with the ground and is halted around the time of mid-support.
When lifting an object, the typical instruction is "keep the back straight" and "lift with the legs." When considering biomechanical lifting technique, which of the following is INCORRECT?
a. With proper technique, the length of the moment arm is minimized
b. Rotational moments are the least stressful for the articulations of the spine
c. The longer the anatomical moment arm, the larger the moment imposed on the muscles and structures of the low back
d. The spine is well suited for compressive forces
a. fatty deposits under the skin known as xanthomas
b. the fact that it only occurs in females
c. large subcutaneous fat deposits around the hips and buttocks
d. more fat on the trunk (abdominal fat)
Which of the following is a purpose of health-related fitness testing?
a. Educating participants about their present health-related fitness status relative to health-related standards and age- and sex-matched norms
b. Comparing a 50-yr-old male with a 30-yr-old of the same gender to determine how much deterioration has gone on in 20 yr
c. To collect baseline data only for the purpose of gender and age comparisons
d. To create a social support network so that the patient or client will feel compelled to exercise regularly
The information obtained from health-related physical fitness testing, in combination with the individual's health and medical information, is used by the health and fitness professional to
a. prepare a patient for surgery
b. uncover otherwise unknown disease processes that may hinder the exercise program
c. enable an individual to achieve specific health/fitness goals
d. diagnose specific cardiovascular diseases
a. combination of muscular strength, endurance, and power
b. ability to lift heavy objects
c. ability to run long distances with very little muscle fatigue
d. combination of glycolytic and nonglycolytic enzymes working together
In which of the following procedures does the subject breathe through a low-resistance valve with his or her nose occluded (or through a non latex foam mask) while pulmonary ventilation and expired fractions of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) are measured?
a. Pulse oximetry
b. Volumetrics
c. Open circuit spirometry
d. Closed circuit spirometry
According to the Expert Panel on the Identification, Evaluation, and Treatment of Overweight and Obesity in Adults, what is the threshold for a determination of obesity in adults as reported in kilogram per square meter?
The principle behind body composition assessment by using skinfold measurements is that
a. it is simple to use and can be administered by anyone
b. it is quick, can be administered by a trained technician, and has a very high correlation to other methods
c. the amount of subcutaneous fat is proportional to the total amount of body fat
d. it correlates well with height and weight measurements but not hydrodensitometry
Which of the following is NOT true of the health-related components of physical fitness?
a. Have a strong relationship with good health
b. Are associated with a lower prevalence of chronic disease and health conditions and their risk factors
c. Are characterized by an ability to perform daily activities with vigor
d. Can predict high levels of athletic performance
Test anxiety, emotional problems, food in the stomach, bladder distention, room temperature, and ventilation should be
a. considered a threat to physical fitness testing validity and reliability
b. controlled as much as possible, but nothing can be done to control all of these factors
c. increased as much as possible
d. a consideration when testing someone for physical fitness but not necessary to completely control
It is well established that excess body fat, particularly when located _______________, is associated with hypertension, the metabolic syndrome, type 2 diabetes, stroke, cardiovascular disease, and dyslipidemia.
a. on the hips and in the abdomen for men only
b. centrally around the abdomen
c. around the hips and buttocks
d. around the hips in women
Which of the following is the appropriate room temperature and humidity for a health-related fitness test?
a. 68° to 72° F (20° to 22° C) and humidity of <60%
b. 75° to 80° F (24° to 27° C) and humidity of >60%
c. 58° to 68° F (14° to 20° C) and humidity of <60%
d. Depends on where the person lives
a. valid and reliable
b. complicated to administer
c. inexpensive to the point of not costing anything to the client or patient
d. developed especially for the individual without regard to comparative norms
Which of the following is NOT a reason why cardiorespiratory fitness (CRF) is considered health related?
a. Risk factors associated with cardiovascular disease are not influenced by habitual physical activity levels in most people.
b. Low levels of CRF have been associated with a markedly increased risk of premature death from all causes, specifically from cardiovascular disease.
c. High levels of CRF are associated with higher levels of habitual physical activity, which in turn are associated with many health benefits.
d. Increases in CRF are associated with a reduction in death from all causes.
Which of the following best describes the waist-to-hip ratio?
a. Skinfold measurement of the hip subtracted by the circumference of the waist
b. Circumference of the hips divided by the circumference of the waist
c. Circumference of the waist divided by the circumference of the hips
d. Skinfold measurement of the hip added to the circumference of the waist
Estimates of maximal oxygen consumption from the heart rate response to submaximal exercise tests are NOT based on which of the following assumptions?
a. Mechanical efficiency is the same for everyone.
b. A nonlinear relationship exists between heart rate and work rate.
c. A steady state heart rate is obtained for each exercise work rate.
d. The difference between actual and predicted maximal HR is minimal.
A minimal recommendation for pretest instructions is the completion of
a. blood tests that include cardiac enzymes
b. the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
c. a 12-h fast
d. a complete physical examination administered by a physician regardless of age
A fundamental goal of primary and secondary intervention programs is
a. to develop athletic abilities in young people so that they will be successful later in life
b. to monitor the success rates of drug therapy
c. the education of family members who otherwise would not be supportive
d. promotion of health
Which of the following is the proper sequence for a testing session?
a. The order does not matter as long as all the components of a physical fitness testing session are complete.
b. Resting heart rate, blood pressure, height, weight, and body composition should be obtained first followed by tests of cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular fitness, and flexibility.
c. Flexibility, heart rate, blood pressure, height, weight, and body composition should be obtained first followed by tests of cardiorespiratory endurance and muscular fitness.
d. Cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular fitness, and flexibility should be obtained first followed by tests of heart rate, blood pressure, height, weight, and body composition.
Which of the following testing modalities are relatively inexpensive, are easily transportable, and allow blood pressure and the electrocardiogram to be measured easily?
a. Field tests
b. Motor-driven treadmills
c. Step testing
d. Mechanically braked cycle ergometers
Cardiorespiratory training results in all of the following EXCEPT
a. Decreased glucose tolerance
b. Decreased fatigue in daily activities
c. Increased lactate threshold
d. Increased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol
The design of the heart's electrical conduction allows for:
a. Contraction of all chambers at the same time
b. Contraction of the right side of the heart prior to the left side of the heart
c. Contraction of the ventricles prior to contraction of the atria
d. Near simultaneous contraction of left and right ventricles
Which of the following is related to strength gains observed with resistance training?
a. Increased lactic acid production
b. Reduction in neuromuscular inhibition
c. Reduced neural drive to the muscle
d. Decreased synchronization of motor units
Which of the following best describes blood flow through the body, starting in the right atrium?
a. Right atrium; right ventricle; lungs; left atrium; left ventricle; body
b. Right atrium; right ventricle; body; left atrium; left ventricle; lungs
c. Right atrium; right ventricle; body; left atrium; left ventricle; lungs
d. Right atrium; left atrium; lungs; right ventricle; left ventricle; body
Which of the following is TRUE regarding isometric training?
a. It can produce improvements in strength at specific joint angles.
b. It is a valuable tool in enhancing functional strength.
c. It has the tendency to acutely lower blood pressure.
d. Strength gains are nonspecific to the joint range of motion.
The heart is controlled through an intrinsic electric system, normally activated in which order?
a. SA node, AV node, bundle branches, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
b. AV node, SA node, bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
c. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, bundle branches, bundle of His
d. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
a. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it activates
b. A sensory neuron and corresponding muscle fiber
c. A motor neuron and the motor cortex
d. The cerebellum and the muscle fibers
a. Innervating a muscle when the joint angle unexpectedly changes
b. Relaxing a muscle when tension on a tendon becomes too great
c. Stimulating contracting of antagonist muscles when tension of a muscle becomes too great
d. Initiating a stronger muscle action when activated
According to the Seventh Report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure, a "normal" blood pressure is
a. <120 mm Hg systolic and <80 mm Hg diastolic
b. 120-139 mm Hg systolic and 80-89 mm Hg diastolic
c. 120-159 mm Hg systolic and 80-99 mm Hg diastolic
d. <140 mm Hg systolic and <90 mm Hg diastolic
Clinical decisions regarding blood pressure should be based on the average of
a. three blood pressure readings, one each in the supine, sitting, and standing positions
b. two or more properly measured, seated blood pressure readings recorded during each of two or more office visits
c. multiple supine measurements taken over the course of a single office visit
d. two or more properly measured, seated blood pressure readings recorded during a single office visit
Body weight, resting blood pressure, auscultation of the lungs, palpation of the lower extremities, tests of neurologic function, and apical pulse rate and rhythm are all components of
a. a physical examination
b. laboratory tests prior to graded exercise testing
c. a detailed medical history
d. an examination only provided to patients in the high-risk category
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to exercise testing?
a. Electrolyte abnormalities (e.g., hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia)
b. Moderate stenotic valvular heart disease
c. Left main coronary stenosis
d. Unstable angina
The Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease has classified the severity of COPD into four stages based on post bronchodilator FEV1.0. Stage IV is very severe. At what point is the FEV1.0 considered this stage of disease?
The metabolic syndrome is characterized by a constellation of metabolic risk factors in one individual. These metabolic risk factors include all of the following EXCEPT
a. elevated triglycerides
b. abdominal obesity
c. high blood pressure
d. low LDL cholesterol
Which of the following has been identified as the target for lowering the risk of cardiovascular disease when addressing issues of lipids and lipoproteins?
a. Lowering LDL cholesterol
b. Reducing total cholesterol
c. Increasing LDL cholesterol
d. Increasing HDL cholesterol
Identification and risk stratification of persons with cardiovascular disease and those at high risk of developing cardiovascular disease are facilitated by review of previous test results such as coronary angiography, nuclear imaging, echocardiography, or coronary artery calcium score studies. Additional testing may include
a. ambulatory electrocardiogram (Holter) monitoring
b. a chest radiograph
c. oximetry
d. pulmonary function tests
Discomfort (e.g., pressure, tingling, pain, heaviness, burning, tightness, squeezing, numbness) in the chest, jaw, neck, back, or arms is referred to as
a. a medical diagnosis
b. bothersome but not medically relevant
c. disease
d. symptoms
Which of the following is NOT an indication for spirometry?
a. To screen individuals at risk of having pulmonary disease
b. To measure maximal oxygen consumption
c. To evaluate symptoms, signs, or abnormal laboratory tests
d. To measure the effect of disease on pulmonary function
Relative contraindications to exercise testing can be superseded if benefits outweigh risks of exercise. In some instances, these individuals can be exercised with caution and/or using low-level endpoints, especially if they are asymptomatic at rest. Which of the following is a relative contraindication to exercise testing?
a. A recent significant change in the resting ECG suggesting significant ischemia
b. Unstable angina
c. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
d. Recent myocardial infarction (within 2 d)
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the informed consent?
a. The consent form should be verbally explained and include a statement indicating that the patient has been given an opportunity to ask questions about the procedure and has sufficient information to give informed consent.
b. If the participant is a minor, a legal guardian or parent need not sign the consent form.
c. The consent form must indicate that the participant is not free to withdraw from the procedure at any time once he or she signs the document.
d. Obtaining adequate informed consent from participants before exercise testing and participation in an exercise program is an important ethical but not legal consideration.
Which of the following is considered stage 2 hypertension requiring immediate medical attention usually consisting of lifestyle modification and antihypertensive medication?
a. 120-139 mm Hg systolic and 80-89 mm Hg diastolic
b. 120-159 mm Hg systolic and 80-99 mm Hg diastolic
c. <120 mm Hg systolic and <80 mm Hg diastolic
d. =160 mm Hg systolic and/or =100 mm Hg diastolic
Which of the following joints of the shoulder complex is not a true joint, but rather is a "functional" or "physiological" joint in that it is formed by an articulation between two structures?
a. Acromioclavicular joint
b. Scapulothoracic joint
c. Sternoclavicular joint
d. Glenohumeral joint
What structure lies between the supraspinatus and deltoid tendons and the acromion to allow gliding and cushioning of these structures during shoulder abduction?
Which of the following is a descriptor associated with "anatomical position"?
a. Feet together and facing forward
b. Palms of hands facing downward
c. Head turned with face to the left
d. Upper limbs positioned at right angle to the torso
a. Movement resulting in an increase in the joint angle
b. Movement resulting in a decrease in joint angle
c. Movement away from the midline of the body
d. Movement toward the midline of the body
Posterior pelvic tilt results from contraction of:
a. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
b. Hip extensors and lumbar flexors
c. Hip extensors and hip flexors in an uncoordinated fashion
d. Lateral lumbar muscles and hip abductor-adductor muscles
True or false? Because of the burden placed on the ankle and foot during activities such as walking, running, jumping, and lifting, traumatic and overuse injuries frequently occur to these structures.
Which of the following areas of study may be the LEAST beneficial for a Personal Trainer when describing what is happening within the body during exercise?
a. Early childhood education
b. Physiology
c. Human anatomy
d. Kinesiology
True or false? Having preset goals and objectives is a helpful way to shorten the initial meeting with a client since so many people face the same general issues.
True or false? If a client proposes a goal that the Personal Trainer feels is unrealistic, unhealthy, or unsafe, the Personal Trainer should go along with the client's wishes since he/she is paying for training services.
What is the prerequisite for entry-level personal training certificates?
a. Associate's degree and CPR/AED training
b. High school diploma (or equivalent) and CPR/AED training
c. Completion of any on-line certification exam course of study
d. Associate's degree, CPR/AED training, and 100 hours of observation
Although fitness professionals have been providing exercise advice for quite some time, the personal training gained notoriety as a stand-alone business in the:
True or false? Credibility of the Personal Trainer is gained through seeking out high-quality certification from an accredited personal training certification program.
Which of the following statements about maintaining focus is FALSE?
a. Personal Trainers should have small exercise equipment and supplies set up in advance
b. Preparation is part of creating a focused environment
c. Personal Trainers should allow time within the session for clients who often take phone calls, text, or check email during sessions
d. Personal Trainers should alert clients not to interrupt sessions with another client
True or false? A written plan should include the date, primary goal(s), exercise information (order, name, duration, intensities) and conclude with the Personal Trainer's signature.
Which characteristic is ideal for a successful mentorship for a Personal Trainer?
a. Is a medical or health care professional of good standing at a hospital or medical center
b. Works with clients that are outside of one's scope of interest
c. Works at the same facility to which you are applying for employment
d. Matches the background and experiences needed
True or false? Personal Trainers should develop a regimen for a client's training experience that is narrow and specific, and allows for minimal deviation from that plan.