ACSM MCQ: September 2017

Archive for September 2017

Hormonal imbalances associated with long-term secondary amenorrhea increases the risk of

A) Extreme muscle hypertrophy.
B) Osteoperosis.
C) Osteoarthritis.
D) Obesity.

Answer: B

In response to regular resistance training,

A) Older men and women demonstrate similar or even greater strength gains when compared to younger individuals.
B) Younger men have greater strength gains than older men.
C) Younger women have greater strength gains than older women.
D) Younger men and women demonstrate similar or greater strength gains when compared to older men and women.

Answer: A

Which of the following statements regarding osteoarthritis in older adults is FALSE?

A) Exercise training improves function.
B) Osteoarthritis is common in older adults.
C) Exercise training slows the progression of osteoarthritis.
D) Exercise training does not exacerbate pain.

Answer: C

An exercise for an elderly person should generally emphasize increased

A) Frequency.
B) Intensity.
C) Duration.
D) Intensity and Frequency.

Answer: A

Which of the following would generally be the preferred mode of exercise for an elderly person?

A) Jogging.
B) Calisthenics.
C) Swimming.
D) Archery.

Answer: C

Which of the following is a result of an older person participating in an exercise program?

A) Overall improvement in the quality of life and increased independance.
B) No changes in the quality of life but an increase in longevity.
C) Increased longevity but a loss in bone mass.
D) Loss in bone mass with a concomitant increase in bone density.

Answer: A

Healthy older adults walk at at a preferred speed that is __________ slower than the preferred speed of a young adult.

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 40%
D) 50%

Answer: B

Which of the following factors does not impair an older individuals ability to to thermoregulate?

A) Reduced total body water.
B) Decreased renal function.
C) Decreased vascular peripheral responsiveness.
D) Enhanced sweat response.

Answer: D

All of the following regarding thermoregulation in children are true EXCEPT

A) Adults have a greater number of sweat glands compared with children.
B) The rate of sweat production is lower in children compared with adults.
C) Children acclimate to hot environments at a slower rate than adults.
D) Sweat rate for children is lower than for adults.

Answer: A

All of the following musculoskeletal changes occur with advancing age EXCEPT

A) Decreased flexibility.
B) Impaired balance.
C) Inhibited range of motion.
D) Skeletal muscle hypertrophy.

Answer: D

Which condition is commonly associated with a progressive decline in bone mineral density and calcium content in postmenopausal women?

A) Osteoarthritis.
B) Osteoperosis.
C) Arthritis.
D) Epiphysis.

Answer: A

Strenuous exercise can predispose children to which of the following?

A) Osteoperosis.
B) Osteoarthritis.
C) Malignant Tumors.
D) Epiphysitis.

Answer: D

The total number of muscle fibers is fixed at an early age, although

A) At adolescence, males exhibit rapid hypertrophy of muscle.
B) In comparison to males, females exhibit a more repid hypertrophy of muscle.
C) Males lose muscle faster at an early age when they remain sedentary.
D) Males tend to exhibit muscle hypertrophy at a later age than females.

Answer: A

At age 17

A) Boys and girls have similar levels of body fat.
B) Boys have more body fat than girls.
C) Girls have twice as much body fat as boys.
D) Body fat is not routinely measured in children.

Answer: C

Which of the following explains a higher resting and exercise heart rate in children?

A) Stroke volume is directly related to how much left ventricular stiffness reduces diastolic filling.
B) Cardiac output is regulated more by peripheral resistance than by any other variable.
C) Children typically have lower stroke volume compared with adults.
D) Children typically have a more elevated peripheral resistance compared with adults.

Answer: C

The Vo2 max remains relatively unchanged throughout childhood. After age 25, it typically decreases by

A) 0% to 5% each decade.
B) 5% to 15% each decade.
C) 15% to 20% each decade.
D) 15% to 20% each year.

Answer: B

An increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure at rest and during exercise often accompanies aging. Blood pressure usually increases because of

A) Increased arterial compliance and decreased arterial stiffness.
B) Decreased arterial compliance and increased arterial stiffness.
C) Decrease in both areterial compiance and arterial stiffness.
D) Increase in both arterial compliance and arterial stiffness.

Answer: B

Which of the following best describes the increase in blood pressure that accompanies aging?

A) Left ventricular hypertrophy.
B) Kidney failure.
C) Liver damage.
D) Liver failure.

Answer: A

Which of the following age groups define the fastest growing segment of the U.S. population?

A) Preadolescents.
B) Adolescents.
C) Adults aged 65 to 85 years.
D) Adults 100 years of age and older.

Answer: D

In terms of chronological are, early childhood is usually described as

A) Birth to 3 weeks.
B) 3 weeks to a year.
C) 1 to 6 years.
D) 7 to 10 years.

Answer: C

When performing the Rockport test for cardiorespiratory assessment, how long should the client rest after walking the one mile before the pulse is checked?

a. three minutes

b. one minute

c. 30 seconds

d. no wait, check pulse immediately

Answer: D

The action the muscle spindle has on the muscle when excited is which of the following?

a. the muscle fibers relax

b. the muscle fibers contract

c. the muscle is lengthened

d. the muscle produces force

Answer: B

Which organ is the sensory organ of the muscle?

a. muscle spindles

b. golgi tendon organ

c. myosensory organ

d. contractile fibers

Answer: A

What measurements are used in establishing the BMI?

a. weight and cardiovascular level

b. weight and height

c. height and resting heart rate

d. resting heart rate and level of blood oxygen

Answer: B

What waist-to-hip ratio indicates a much higher risk for many diseases?

a. above 0.95 for women, and above 0.80 for men

b. above 0.80 for women, and above 0.95 for men

c. above 0.65 for women, and above 0.70 for men

d. above 0.70 for women, and above 0.65 for men

Answer: B

What method is NOT used to determine body fat measurements?

a. skin-fold caliper

b. ultrasound

c. bioelectric impedance

d. underwater weight

Answer: B

A normal blood pressure measurement is which of the following?

a. diastolic of 120 to 130 mmHg and systolic of 80 to 85 mmHg

b. systolic of 120 to 130 mmHg and diastolic of 80 to 85 mmHg

c. diastolic of 100 to 120 mmHg and systolic of 140 to 160 mmHg

d. systolic of 100 to 120 mmHg and diastolic of 140 to 160 mmHg

Answer: B

What is the best method for the client to determine their resting heart rate?

a. check their heart rate three mornings in a row, and take the average

b. make an appointment to visit a healthcare provider for readings

c. compare heart before and after strenuous physical activity

d. calculate it based on body temperature and number of calories consumed the previous day

Answer: A

Which of the following is the effect of medications that are Beta-blockers on heart rate and blood pressure?

a. increase heart rate, increased blood pressure

b. increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure

c. decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure

d. decreased heart rate, increased blood pressure

Answer: C

Which of the following is NOT a chronic condition?

a. cardiovascular disease

b. obesity

c. plantar fasciitis

d. diabetes mellitus

Answer: C

Which of the following past injury can lead to a decrease in the neural control of stabilizing core muscles?

a. ankle sprain

b. lower back injuries

c. shoulder injuries

d. groin strains

Answer: B

Which of the following past injury can lead to a decrease in neural control of the patella?

a. ankle sprains

b. lower back injuries

c. knee injury involving ligaments

d. shoulder injuries

Answer: C

Which chronic occupational postural habit can lead to tightness in the gastrocnemius and soleus?

a. wearing high heeled shoes

b. long term sitting, like at a desk

c. repetitive movements

d. postural imbalances

Answer: A

What type of chronic lifestyle habit can lead to tight hip flexors and potentially result in postural imbalances?

a. lifting heavy objects with poor form

b. standing with slouching posture

c. wearing high heels

d. sitting for long periods of time such as at a desk for work

Answer: D

Which of the following tasks is NOT one that health and fitness professional should perform for the client?

a. use exercise to help client improve overall health

b. provide general information on healthy nutrition and diet

c. prescribe diets and specific supplements

d. identify potential health risks through a thorough screening process

Answer: C

What types of information are provided by a fitness assessment?

a. information on medical history and health issues

b. information about activity level, hobbies and abilities

c. a representation of the client's goals and needs

d. all of the above

Answer: D

What is the systematic way of observing a client's structural and functional status?

a. diagnose conditions

b. perform nutritional counseling

c. fitness assessment

d. variable selection

Answer: C

Sensorimotor integration is the nervous systems ability to perform what function?

a. interpret sensory stimulus in order to execute appropriate motor response

b. integrate the kinetic chain into the nervous system's response

c. determine the efficiency of a muscle movement

d. produce enough force to affect a rotary motion

Answer: A

What form of sensory input allows the body to sense position, motion, and sensations of muscles and joints?

a. mechanoreception

b. joint receptors

c. proprioception

d. balance

Answer: C

The response of the kinetic chain to stimulus from its internal and external environments is called what?

a. muscle integration

b. motor control

c. motor behavior

d. proprioception

Answer: C

The sternocleidomastoid performs what isolated functions?

a. concentrically accelerates cervical flexion

b. concentrically accelerates abduction of the arm

c. concentrically accelerates cervical rotation

d. a and c

Answer: D

Which of the following leg muscle does NOT provide isometric stability to the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?

a. adductor brevis

b. adductor magnus-anterior fibers

c. adductor magnus-posterior fibers

d. rectus femoris

Answer: B

Which muscle action is used to dynamically stabilize the body through its noticeable lack of change in muscle length?

a. concentric

b. eccentric

c. static

d. isometric

Answer: D

When performing a military press (overhead), as the weight is being lowered back down to the starting position, what muscle action is being performed?

a. concentric

b. eccentric

c. dorsimetric

d. isometric

Answer: B

A motion in the transverse plane would include which of the following?

a. flexion of the biceps (curl)

b. lateral flexion during a side lunge

c. internal rotation of the trunk

d. extension of the arms in a triceps pushdown

Answer: C

Which plane of motion occurs around the coronal axis?

a. medial

b. frontal

c. sagittal

d. transverse

Answer: C

Which of the following anatomic parts is the most distal from the right clavicle?

a. the head

b. the right scapula

c. the right hand

d. the left foot

Answer: D

In anatomic position, the head is located where in relation to the pelvis?

a. superior

b. proximal

c. caudal

d. ipsilateral

Answer: A

What are some main characteristics of the oxidative pathway?

a. for activities of short periods of time but high intensity

b. for activities with moderate length of time and intensity

c. for activities of longer duration and high intensity

d. for activities of longer duration and lower intensity

Answer: D

Which of the bioenergetics pathways commences immediately upon the onset of physical activity and produces energy quickly?

a. oxidative pathway

b. aerobic pathway

c. glycolysis pathway

d. ATP-CP pathway

Answer: D

What is the correct makeup of the Adenosine Triphosphate structure?

a. adenine, phosphate and glucose

b. adenine, ribose and nitrogen

c. adenine, phosphate and carbon dioxide

d. adenine, ribose and phosphate

Answer: D

The production of ATP is accomplished via three bioenergetic pathways. Which of the following is NOT one of these pathways?

a. oxidative pathway

b. glycolysis pathway

c. submaximal consumption pathway

d. ATP-CP pathway

Answer: C

The biological study of energy transformation and exchange within the body, between the body and the environment is called what?

a. aerobic energy conversion

b. anaerobic energy conversion

c. bioenergetics

d. energetics

Answer: C

Where within the respiratory system does the exchange of gases, or diffusion occur?

a. larynx

b. bronchiles

c. alveoli

d. alveolar sacs

Answer: D

What part of the heart's conduction system initiates the heartbeat?

a. atrioventricular node (AV)

b. sinoatrial node (SA)

c. purkinje fibers

d. atrioventricular bundle (Bundle of His)

Answer: B

Which chamber of the heart collects the deoxygenated blood from its cycle after delivering oxygen throughout the body?

a. right atrium

b. left atrium

c. right ventricle

d. left ventricle

Answer: A

While performing an overhead press, which muscle would be the prime mover, or agonist?

a. triceps

b. latissimus dorsi

c. rotator cuff

d. deltoid

Answer: D

The type of muscle mover that is most responsible for a specific movement within the musculoskeletal system is which of the following?

a. synergist

b. stabilizer

c. agonist

d. antagonist

Answer: C

What are the characteristics of Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibers?

a. larger size

b. more capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin

c. more force produced

d. answers a and c

Answer: D

What type of muscle is more resistant to fatigue and benefits more from longer contractions to produce stabilization?

a. type I

b. type II

c. type IIa

d. type IIb

Answer: A

The sliding filament theory is the proposed method by which muscle contraction occurs after neural activation. During this process, what occurs within the muscle fiber after the myosin heads attach to the actin filament?

a. actin filament is pulled across the myosin

b. chemical messengers transfer the electrical impulse to the muscle

c. neurotransmitters attach at receptor sites

d. action potentials transmit impulses.

Answer: A

Muscle contraction can only occur through the generation of neural activation. Which of the following is not a part of this process?

a. electrical impulses travel along the neuron

b. muscle fibers are wrapped together into bundles

c. acetylcholine stimulates muscle fibers

d. release of neurotransmitters occurs

Answer: B

What is known as the functional unit of muscle?

a. myofibril

b. sarcolemma

c. sarcomere

d. tropomyosin

Answer: C

Which system is the control center for producing movement?

a. muscular system

b. musculoskeletal system

c. respiratory system

d. nervous system

Answer: D

Which of the following functions is NOT that of ligaments?

a. provides static and dynamic stability

b. provides proprioception

c. acts as the primary connective tissue for attaching muscle to bone

d. acts as the primary connective tissue between bones within a joint

Answer: C

The joint type that is most associated with movement in the body is which of the following?

a. flexible joints

b. nonsynovial joints

c. synovial joints

d. symphysis joints

Answer: C

When considering movement, the bones of the skeletal system have what two main functions?

a. leverage and support

b. leverage and postural attachment points

c. support and axial movement

d. postural attachment points and joint stability

Answer: A

In order to prevent a muscle from stretching too far, a muscle spindle will become excited and cause the muscle to contract because they are sensitive to what distortion of muscle tissue?

a. change in length and rate of length change

b. change in length and muscular tension

c. change in muscular tension and rate of tension change

d. change in rate of tension change and rate of length change

Answer: A

Which of the following sensory receptors responds to touch and pressure?

a. chemoreceptors

b. mechanoreceptors

c. nociceptors

d. fibroreceptors

Answer: B

Sensory (afferent) neurons perform what main function in the nervous system?

a. transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to another

b. transmit nerve impulses from effector sites to the spinal cord and brain

c. transmit nerve impulses from the neurolemma to the myelin sheath

d. transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to the effector sites

Answer: B

What percentage of adults are affected by musculoskeletal lower back pain?

a. 16%

b. 33%

c. 70%

d. 80%

Answer: D

What is one way for the fitness professional to help move a client through the contemplation phase into taking action toward an exercise program?

a. help them understand the process of lifestyle change

b. encourage positive health changes by pointing out areas in their life needing improvement

c. set achievable goals

d. discuss the benefits of exercise and how to overcome barriers to exercise in their life

Answer: D

Which of the following is not a cognitive or experiential variable of exercise?

a. previous experiences

b. perceived enjoyment

c. social support

d. convenience of an exercise program

Answer: C

Which of the following is not a primary determining factor for sweat rate?

a. acclimation

b. ambient temperature

c. fitness

d. hydration

Answer: B

In what portion of understanding cardiac cycle physiology can the Frank-Starling Law be used for information?

a. explains how end-diastolic volume relates to stroke volume

b. explains the physiologic difference in diastolic and systolic pressures

c. helps to understand calculation of ejection fraction

d. explains the acute effects of endurance and cardiovascular training on heart health

Answer: A

What degree of change in blood pressure should indicate an immediate termination of exercise because it indicates possible cardiovascular failure?

a. a sudden, significant rise in systolic pressure

b. diastolic pressure increase by more than 15 mmHg

c. a sudden, significant drop in diastolic pressure

d. systolic pressure increasing by more than 15 mmHg

Answer: B

Shunting during exercise has the dramatic affect of increasing blood flow to the working skeletal muscles from about 20% of total cardiac output to what increased percent?

a. 30%

b. 50%

c. 85%

d. 95%

Answer: C

What is a typical stroke volume while at rest?

a. 20 mL

b. 40 mL

c. 50 mL

d. 70 mL

Answer: D

Which of the following composes the greatest amount of volume in blood?

a. erythrocytes

b. leukocytes

c. white blood cells

d. platelets

Answer: A

A linear relationship exist between heart rate and which factor of exercise?

a. frequency

b. duration

c. variety

d. intensity

Answer: D

Which part of the cardiac cycle is the relaxation phase between contractions?

a. diastole

b. systole

c. stroke rest

d. ejection

Answer: A

Normally, the body's total expenditure of energy on breathing is about 3%. To what percentage can it increase in highly trained athletes during maximal intensity exercise?

a. 5%

b. 8%

c. 15%

d. 18%

Answer: C

What is the amount of air either entering or leaving the lungs in a single breath?

a. tidal volume

b. respiratory volume

c. breath capacity

d. pulmonary volume

Answer: A

At rest, what is the average minute ventilation?

a. 1 L/min

b. 2 L/min

c. 4 L/min

d. 6 L/min

Answer: D

What part do the sternocleidomastoid and scalenus play in exercise?

a. they assist the diaphragm in expelling air forcefully

b. they pull the diaphragm up towards the rib cage at the end of expiration

c. they act as accessories to the diaphragm to help expand the rib cage

d. they are they primary muscles used in power breathing

Answer: C

What process involves the binding of calcium and troponin to shape shift the tropomyosin, exposing activated sites on the actin filament and causing a subsequent shortening of the muscle fiber?

a. Sliding-filament theory

b. Calcium pump

c. Action potentials

d. Excitation of myosin

Answer: A

What is the normal rotational angle of the pelvis from a transverse perspective during normal walking gait?

a. 5°

b. 8°

c. 10°

d. the neutral pelvis should have no angle of rotation

Answer: B

Why does weakness in the quadriceps femoris lead to forward lean of the trunk of hyperextension of the knee joint?

a. the heel tends to slap down on the ground during initial contact

b. causes inability to adequately support loads or control knee extension

c. leads to instability of the patella and spasm of the surrounding tendons which cause postural misalignment

d. resulting excessive flexion in the knee and hip lead to this postural misalignment

Answer: B

Which of the following is not a part of the stance phase of a walking gait?

a. heel strike

b. midstance

c. acceleration

d. toe off

Answer: C

Which type of lever has the resistance between the effort force and the axis of rotation with the force arm greater than the resistance arm?

a. First-class lever

b. Second-class lever

c. Third-class lever

d. Axis lever

Answer: B

Variation in the diameter of the bronchioles controls what function?

a. resistance to air flow and the ventilation in the lungs

b. ability to expel air forcefully in a cough

c. the level of oxygen exchange

d. expulsion of air from the lungs through the larynx during speech

Answer: A

Which prime mover of the foot is responsible for eversion?

a. flexor digitorum longus

b. tibialis anterior

c. tibilais posterior

d. peroneus longus

Answer: D

In what functional class of joints are diarthroses classified?

a. slightly movable joints

b. freely movable joints

c. immovable joints

d. fused joints

Answer: B

Which type of motion is a pivot style joint capable of performing?

a. inversion and eversion

b. circumduction and opposition

c. rotation around a central axis

d. flexion and extension in one plane

Answer: C

Which type of joint is capable of flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, and opposition movements?

a. hinge

b. ball and socket

c. condyloid

d. saddle

Answer: D

What is the purpose of the terminal cisternae within the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

a. to store sodium and potassium for cell hydration and pressure

b. to store actin and myosin

c. to store calcium

d. to store tropomyosin and troponin

Answer: C

At which junction does bone growth occur?

a. at the joint where two bones meet

b. at the place where cartilage meets bone

c. at the place where tendon and bone meet

d. at the place where the epiphysis and diaphysis meet

Answer: D

Which bones are cuboidal in shape and covered with articular surfaces that interface with joints?

a. short bones

b. long bones

c. flat bones

d. irregular bones

Answer: A

Which electrolyte abnormality will show shortened ventricular repolarization and shortened QT intervals on ECG?

a. hypercalcemia

b. hypocalcemia

c. hyperkalemia

d. hypokalemia

Answer: A

What condition may be indicated very early by an ECG with ST elevations, or tall, upright T waves?

a. sudden cardiac death

b. myocardial ischemia

c. transmural myocardial infarction

d. coronary artery disease

Answer: C

Compared to previous editions of the Guidelines, this version (the ninth edition) regarding the preparticipation health screening process

a. supports the public health message of sedentary behavior for all
b. uses the term risk stratification only for patients with musculoskeletal disease
c. reduces the emphasis on the need for a medical examination
d. emphasizes identifying those without disease because they are at greatest risk for an exercise-related cardiac event

Answer: C

Orthopnea refers to

a. dyspnea occurring at rest in the recumbent position
b. an unpleasant awareness of the forceful or rapid beating of the heart
c. dull ache or "knifelike," sharp, stabbing pain in the chest
d. shortness of breath

Answer: A

Which of the following is a NEGATIVE risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

a. Waist girth of 103 cm
b. HDL cholesterol of 62 mg · dL-1 (1.57 mmol · L-1)
c. BMI of 32 kg · m-2
d. Total cholesterol of 200 mg · dL-1 (5.18 mmol · L-1)

Answer: B

Which of the following is defined as a loss of consciousness?

a. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
b. Syncope
c. Orthopnea
d. Angina

Answer: B

According to the AACVPR risk stratification criteria for patients with known CVD, individuals at high risk for exercise participation may exhibit any one or a combination of the following except

a. presence of angina or other significant symptoms at low levels of exertion or during recovery
b. high level of silent ischemia during exercise testing or recovery
c. presence of complex ventricular dysrhythmias during exercise testing or recovery
d. presence of normal hemodynamics with exercise testing or during recovery

Answer: D

The process by which individuals are assigned a risk category is called risk classification, which is based on the presence or absence of all but which of the following?

a. The potential for developing risk factors
b. Known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease
c. Signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease
d. CVD risk factors

Answer: A

Risk stratification of cardiac patients (patients with known disease) includes lowest risk, moderate risk, and high risk according to the AACVPR. Which of the following places a patient into the moderate-risk category?

a. Functional capacity =7 METs
b. Rest ejection fraction <40%
c. Mild to moderate level of silent ischemia during exercise testing or recovery (ST-segment depression <2 mm from baseline)
d. Presence of complex ventricular dysrhythmias during exercise testing or recovery

Answer: B

According to the risk classification criteria, a patient in the moderate risk category should have

a. his or her medical insurance coverage examined closely before giving him or her a graded exercise test
b. a medical examination prior to engaging in a vigorous exercise program
c. a medical examination and a graded exercise test prior to engaging in any form of exercise
d. a medical examination prior to engaging in an exercise program of any exercise intensity

Answer: B

Which of the following is a definition of low risk?

a. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, but have two or more (i.e., =2) risk CVD factors
b. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, and have less than two (i.e.,<2) CVD risk factors
c. Individuals with more than three risk factors and who also exhibit symptoms of cardiovascular disease
d. Individuals who have one or more signs/symptoms of or have diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease

Answer: B

Which of the following is a definition of moderate risk?

a. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, and have less than two (i.e., <2) CVD risk factors
b. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, but have two or more (i.e., =2) risk CVD factors
c. Individuals who have one or more signs/symptoms of or have diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease
d. Individuals with more than three risk factors and who also exhibit symptoms of cardiovascular disease

Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the preparticipation health screening?

a. Recognition of persons with clinically significant disease(s) or conditions who should participate in a community-based exercise program
b. Detection of individuals at increased risk for disease because of age, symptoms, and/or risk factors who should undergo a medical evaluation and exercise testing before initiating an exercise program or increasing the frequency and intensity of their current program
c. Identification of individuals with medical contraindications for exclusion from exercise programs until those conditions have been abated or are under control
d. Recognition of persons with clinically significant disease(s) or conditions who should participate in a medically supervised exercise program

Answer: A

Which of the following individuals has a cardiovascular disease risk factor?

a. A client with a blood pressure of 138/82 mm Hg
b. Cigarette smoker who quit 3 months ago
c. A client with a BMI of 24
d. Someone who began a regular exercise program a year ago

Answer: B

Intermittent claudication is defined as

a. chronic pain in the chest that is often described as a dull ache
b. shortness of breath brought on by physical exertion
c. the pain that occurs in a muscle with inadequate blood supply
d. shortness of breath occurring only in the recumbent position

Answer: C

Which of the following is an example of a self-guided screening for physical activity?

a. CVD risk factor assessment and classification qualified health/fitness, clinical exercise, or health care professionals
b. Stress test conducted by a qualified health care provider
c. Physician's medical release form (i.e., HIPAA requirements)
d. PAR-Q

Answer: D

The American College of Sports Medicine recognizes the risk stratification procedures of which other organization?

a. NSCA
b. AACVPR
c. YMCA
d. ACE

Answer: B

Potential exercise program participants should be screened for the presence, signs, symptoms, and/or risk factors of various cardiovascular, pulmonary, and metabolic diseases as well as other conditions (e.g., pregnancy, orthopedic injury) that require special attention to

a. develop additional cost centers for your program
b. increase the likelihood that participants will drop out
c. optimize safety during exercise testing
d. increase revenue generation

Answer: C

Dyspnea can be defined as

a. orthopnea
b. syncope
c. substernal chest pain
d. an abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing

Answer: D

Self-guided screening for physical activity can be best described as

a. one that is often conducted within the confines of a physician's office because of secrecy and patient confidentiality
b. a self-report medical history or health risk appraisal that should be done by all people wishing to initiate a physical activity program and is completed with little or no input or supervision from an exercise or health/fitness professional
c. often misunderstood by exercise professionals because it is inherently misunderstood by the client and is subject to the client not being truthful
d. one whereby the health fitness/clinical assessment is conducted by and the exercise program is designed and supervised by appropriately trained personnel that possess academic training and practical/clinical knowledge, skills, and abilities

Answer: B

Which of the following is a NOT symptom of coronary artery disease?

a. Dizziness or syncope
b. Shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion
c. Swollen hands
d. Pain or discomfort (or other anginal equivalent) in the chest, neck, jaw, arms, or other areas that may result from ischemia

Answer: C

After completing self-guided preparticipation health screening methods as the PAR-Q or AHA/ACSM Health/Fitness Facility Preparticipation Screening Questionnaire, the number of positive CVD risk factors should be

a. divided by negative risk factors
b. subtracted from the number of negative risk factors
c. summed
d. multiplied by negative risk factors

Answer: C

An individual has known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease if a physician has diagnosed all but which of the following conditions?

a. Cardiovascular disease (CVD): cardiac disease, peripheral artery disease (PAD), or cerebrovascular disease
b. Meningococcal disease
c. Pulmonary disease: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), asthma, interstitial lung disease, or cystic fibrosis
d. Metabolic disease: diabetes mellitus (type 1 or type 2), and renal or liver disease

Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT considered an ACSM risk classification level?

a. Low
b. Moderate
c. Very low
d. High

Answer: C

What should happen to undisclosed or unavailable CVD risk factor information?

a. Do not count it against the person.
b. Consider it only in the presence of other risk factors.
c. Count it as a risk factor except for prediabetes.
d. Forget that it exists.

Answer: C

Exercise or health/fitness professionals should have a thorough knowledge of all but which of the following when doing a risk classification?

a. The pathologic sequencing of the disease
b. The descriptions of signs and symptoms for cardiovascular, pulmonary, and metabolic diseases
c. The specific criteria that determine the CVD risk factor schemes
d. The criteria for known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and metabolic diseases

Answer: A

Which of the following is a definition of high risk?

a. Individuals with no factors and who also exhibit no symptoms of cardiovascular disease
b. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, and have less than two (i.e., <2) CVD risk factors
c. Individuals who have one or more signs/symptoms of or have diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal and/or metabolic disease
d. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, but have two or more (i.e., =2) risk CVD factors

Answer: C